mnottertail
Posts: 60698
Joined: 11/3/2004 Status: offline
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quote:
ORIGINAL: aldompdx M.E., You make some very salient points. I erred in addressing my entire response to you, when I should have included a delimiter. I read the essence of the original post as, "how can I legally evade the law?" "Every man is presumed to know the law." United States v. Budd, 144 U.S. 154, 163 (1892). "Deliberate ignorance and positive knowledge are equally culpable." United States v. Jewell, 532 F.2d 697, 700 (1976). The question of unlawful agreement or assertion of the unclean hands doctrine would be an affirmative defense, not a condition precedent. I have never seen a U.S. jurisdiction case which was dismissed because the pleader failed to aver lawfulness of agreement. This is more so in a notice pleading jurisdiction. I assumed here for the sake of argument that at this stage in the hypothetical "proceedings," the facts of a claim are presumed true, or a prima facie burden applies. Likewise, whether an agreement is binding or valid does not negate its existence as a contract. Yes, absent the capacity to consent, there may be an agreement (contract), but one of the parties is effectively absent. Thus, although the contract exists, it would not be enforceable upon the absent party. That is why I qualified my first posting with the requirement of "informed consent." Stating one's subjective desire or intent to serve (assuming lawful conduct) is a form of free expression under the 1st amendment. The problem arises when it implies a bargain or constraint imposed by another, in a manner contrary to law -- i.e., conspiracy to act unlawfully. Perhaps you might like to clarify what you see as a problem with declaring that: "It is my desire to perform the activity of [whatever]." Or, "I wish to express honor and love through the act of [whatever]." And, "I feel like doing [whatever]." Such declarations do not touch upon slavery or indentured servitude, and certainly do not imply agreement (contract). ~~~~~~~~~~~~~ DELIMITER ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ Notwithstanding my rare cynical rhetoric, I actually find many of the responses in this thread to responsibly distinguish between reality and fantasy. I don't give a shit what name you give it, or how much FDS you spray on it, the fuckin' thing stinks. I can declare you are a cocksucker, nothing inheirently or patently illegal about that, you may well be, and you can take me to court and prove you are not (or even make me prove you are) and thats one thing, a civil matter, and it is Monte Hall, who's got a coathanger, I'll give you 200 dollars, lets make a deal...... However; if you can show reasonable evidence that I made you suck a cock against your will, paper signed or no, it is criminal........well all those sentences that you wrote up there that are illogical (prima facie, read the fuckers aloud, one at a time and somebody tell me what he said in coherent fashion)....... Well, just fuckin' nope, ain't gonna be your best day. Ron
< Message edited by mnottertail -- 9/25/2009 6:46:54 PM >
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Have they not divided the prey; to every man a damsel or two? Judges 5:30
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