NoCalOwner -> RE: Can a contract be worded to be legally binding (9/1/2004 11:23:37 AM)
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Mandatory caveat: I did go to law school, I did work in a contracts/torts practice, I did give it up in the '80s, and I'd probably be wrong about your jurisdiction (ESPECIALLY if it were Texas or Louisiana) even if my knowledge weren't obsolete. Do NOT rely on anything I say. Agreed, absolutely. As slavewoman could have told you if she weren't too busy keeping her billable hours up, the only way you can get a court to order an exact thing (as opposed to monetary or similar damages), "specific performance," is when no usual sort of damages can rectify the wrong that has been done. To give an example, if someone owned the house that you'd grown up in, and agreed to sell it to you, then backed down, you might be able to get the court to order them to hand it over for the agreed price, because that house had value to you which was completely unique, and no substitute would do. Specific performance is almost never ordered in an employment context, and it happens relatively rarely in ANY context. If you want to make a fool of yourself in court, I'd recommend instead that you sue your spouse. Point out that marriage is a contract where meretricious consideration is assumed, say that you haven't been getting laid enough, and demand specific performance. You will instantly lose, but at least the judge will be amused.
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