BKSir
Posts: 4037
Joined: 4/8/2008 From: Salt Lake City, UT Status: offline
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I'm just attempting to clarify here, and pointing out that, no matter how the marriage was performed in another country, even if not identical, wondering if it is still recognizable. I realize that that "identical" is the key term in this, which would make a huge huge grey area. What looks identical to one bunch of people might look completely different to another. And identical means that there are numerous factors involved. Identical to what? What are the conditions being looked at that would make something identical or different? In and of itself it is stating that it is comparing it to marriage laws in the state of Texas. Why would it possibly mean different? It obviously isn't meaning "identical to marriage in Saskatchewan, or Algeria, or Hong Kong". While I freely admit that I find this situation to be amusing and even humourous, I'm mostly playing devil's advocate here. Mainly since I have no reason to think that Texas will legalize it any sooner than my "wonderful" state of Utah will. Loosely meaning, right about the time Mahatma Gandhi digs his way out of his grave and does a Vaudeville revival tour. EDIT: I may have to come back and pick this debate up tomorrow, but, as it is after 2am for me and I do have a ton of stuff to do tomorrow, I'm afraid I need to go to bed.
< Message edited by BKSir -- 11/20/2009 1:15:47 AM >
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