willbeurdaddy
Posts: 11894
Joined: 4/8/2006 Status: offline
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quote:
ORIGINAL: InvisibleBlack He's kind of an idiot here. The 19th Amendment states "The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of sex." which pretty much provides that women can be (and are) "citizens of the United States". The 14th Amendment states "All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws." (Emphasis mine.) I don't see how, even under the strictest interpretation of the Constitution and the law, one could claim that the 14th Amendment bars racial discrimination but not gender discimination. It's pretty much all or nothing. Correct. Its nothing. "without Due process of law" means laws can be passed by States, just like they pass other laws that deprive criminals of life/liberty/property. Protection is equal if you can discriminate against any group equally.
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Hear the lark and harken to the barking of the dogfox, gone to ground.
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