luckydawg
Posts: 2448
Joined: 9/2/2009 Status: offline
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quote:
ORIGINAL: mnottertail Once more for the unteachable. An irrefutable expert states that: "Palestine" (a place) is believed to be derived from the Philistines (a people). Palestine (Gaza and west bank) check a map, there it is, was inhabited by Philistines (a people) according to an irrefutable expert, who were anciently from the Aegean (now beside the point, but where were they from before that?) They lived amongst the caananites (jews) for centuries. They mixed in with the semitic peoples. You would be a fool to argue that spanish people did not intermix with mexican indians (of the native american kind in their area) and you would be a fool to argue that the philistines (who settled in current parts of palestine) did not intermix with the semites. Thats why obama has african heritage and white heritage, that is why mexicans have spanish heritage and indian heritage, that is why philistines (of palestine) have semitic heritage. You are wrong on both counts, Philistines (and other area natives) =Palestinians = semitic. It is soritical. But really pathetic and sad you lie and pretend you cannot comprehend a 3rd grader ability sentence, just because it is factual. except it is not soritical. That the arabs moved in later does not make them the older inhabitants. Nor does it make them = to them. It is always proof that you know you are wrong when you pull out the thesaurus and missuse a word from it. But you and the Anti-semites are free to pretend that the Palestinians = the Philistines, so the Jews have no right to live in the area named Palestine by the Europeon imperialists.
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I was posting as Right Wing Hippie, but that account got messed up.
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