RE: Court Rules: Atheism is a Religion (Full Version)

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tazzygirl -> RE: Court Rules: Atheism is a Religion (10/15/2011 10:58:13 PM)


quote:

ORIGINAL: Kirata


quote:

ORIGINAL: GotSteel

Um...I'm going to need some explanation on that one, I haven't the fainest idea what you're talking about.

Atheism is, in a broad sense, the rejection of belief in the existence of deities. It is also used to piss off a bunch of christianfags that have to use stories that, need I remind you, have no actual facts to back them up to prove things.

Edited to add:

It's gone now... it just got yanked. Call it a wardrobe malfunction. [:D]

K.






LOL

You are right, Master Kirata. I used my history to go back to the site, and there it was. After reading your post, I did a refresh and its gone.




tazzygirl -> RE: Court Rules: Atheism is a Religion (10/15/2011 11:01:04 PM)


quote:

ORIGINAL: GotSteel

quote:

ORIGINAL: Kirata
Atheism is, in a broad sense, the rejection of belief in the existence of deities. It is also used to piss off a bunch of christianfags that have to use stories that, need I remind you, have no actual facts to back them up to prove things.

Edited to add:

It's gone now... it just got yanked. Call it a wardrobe malfunction. [:D]


Facepalm.



Ya gotta admit, GS, its a bit hard to get past.... lol... but thankfully its gone, and I did read the site.

So, according to what I read, that would make me an atheist? Not too sure I agree with that.




tazzygirl -> RE: Court Rules: Atheism is a Religion (10/15/2011 11:03:18 PM)

quote:

ORIGINAL: HeatherMcLeather

quote:

rofl... my dear, that is not relevant.
Oh but it is. They are your words, own them. Don't blame me because you talked yourself into a corner trying to be a smartass.


Oh but its not. Why? Because I said your words were not relevant and thats all that truly matters.

And, since your conversation with me is not relevant to the discussion of this thread, our exchange ends now.

Please, do enjoy your day/evening/whatever. [:D]




HeatherMcLeather -> RE: Court Rules: Atheism is a Religion (10/15/2011 11:05:53 PM)

quote:

Because I said your words were not relevant and thats all that truly matters.
No, because you already acknowledged me as an authority on what is relevant, so what I say in that respect goes,. You really do need to be more careful how you word things. [:)]




xssve -> RE: Court Rules: Atheism is a Religion (10/15/2011 11:24:41 PM)

quote:

ORIGINAL: willbeurdaddy


quote:

ORIGINAL: xssve

Well it depends on who you ask now doesn't it?

I find it reassuring that the court has never seen fit to interpret it as a noun, which is something I suspect a strict constructionist would be more likely to do.



They never have because its impossible to, as I said, even by Kagan or Sotomayor.
You manage to reinterpret the second amendment the way you want on a regular basis.




gungadin09 -> RE: Court Rules: Atheism is a Religion (10/15/2011 11:46:40 PM)

quote:

ORIGINAL: HeatherMcLeather

quote:

Either here or there, Heather's position is wrong.
No, I don't think it is, because they aren't interpreting the words in this case, they are following them.


No.  The phrase "...shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion" is also understood to include irreligion.  (Ex. Employers aren't allowed to use religion OR irreligion as a criteria for who they hire.)  Classifying irreligion as a kind of religion requires considerable stretching of the word "religion".  It's been said that if you really want a word to mean something, you can find some dictionary or other that will define it that way... but i doubt there's any dictionary on earth that defines irreligion as a kind of religion.  Atheism, maybe, but irreligion?  No.  i'm sorry, but THAT is an interpretation, and a broad one.  Irreligion is not, strictly speaking, a religion, not by any definition of the word religion, not even yours.  Irreligion isn't one or more religious beliefs.  It isn't even one or more beliefs.  It is the absence of belief, specifically the absence of any religious belief.   Defining the absence of religious belief as a religious belief, and hence, as a religion requires considerable imagination on the courts part. 

i'm beginning to think they're right.  It's clear that the first amendment was always intended to protect a person's freedom NOT to follow a religion, too.  i think the courts are right in this case to interpret the law not as it reads, but as it must really mean.

pam




SpanishMatMaster -> RE: Court Rules: Atheism is a Religion (10/15/2011 11:47:19 PM)

quote:

ORIGINAL: willbeurdaddy
quote:

ORIGINAL: SpanishMatMaster
quote:

ORIGINAL: willbeurdaddy
No, it isnt. You seem to have trouble distinguishing between a verb (as used in the Constitution) and a noun.
His point is, I think, that if the judges can reinterpret the law at will, they can change the verb for the noun.

Not if the meaning is already total clear. No judge could change "to estabish" for "a church". Even Sotomayor or Kagan.

Sorry, but I repeat... if the judges can reinterpret the law at will, they can. No matter if it is "total clear" for you, for me or for the 99.999% of the population. Please read carefully the "if" part. I am not saying that this is the case. I am saying that the reasoning was xssve point (to show that the "if" is wrong).

BTW: "An establishment" is always a noun. This is simple grammar. This is the reason why, in the sentence "An establishment is a verb" the verb is "is" and not "establishment", which is the subject of the sentence ("What is a noun?" "An establishment").

Or is English grammar so different...?

Thank you.




SpanishMatMaster -> RE: Court Rules: Atheism is a Religion (10/15/2011 11:50:01 PM)

quote:

ORIGINAL: Kirata
It is also used to piss off a bunch of christianfags that have to use stories that, need I remind you, have no actual facts to back them up to prove things.
I truly have my fun with them. And once I even converted one. Seriously. He abandoned the Jehova's Witnesses for good, after some weeks of talking with me. Score!




HeatherMcLeather -> RE: Court Rules: Atheism is a Religion (10/15/2011 11:59:40 PM)

quote:

Defining the absence of religious belief as a religious belief, and hence, as a religion requires considerable imagination on the courts part.
The way I'm seeing it is that the establishment clause prohibits them from defining anything as a religion, or not a religion. "no law respecting an establishment of religion". They don't have the power to determine what is or isn't a religion, so everything in the field of religion is protected.

Irreligion is protected simply by virtue of it not being legal not to protect it. In order to exclude it, one would have to declare it not a religion, and the government is prohibited from doing that. So it is protected by default.

That's the way I see it at any rate.





gungadin09 -> RE: Court Rules: Atheism is a Religion (10/16/2011 12:05:46 AM)

quote:

ORIGINAL: HeatherMcLeather
The way I'm seeing it is that the establishment clause prohibits them from defining anything as a religion, or not a religion. "no law respecting an establishment of religion". They don't have the power to determine what is or isn't a religion, so everything in the field of religion is protected.


i see it as meaning, they aren't allowed to establish an official state religion, or to give preferential treatment to one religion over another, instead of meaning, they aren't allowed to determine what a religion is and isn't.  Anyway, i think i'm probably about done here.  It was good debating with you.

pam




HeatherMcLeather -> RE: Court Rules: Atheism is a Religion (10/16/2011 12:09:53 AM)

Likewise. Bye.




GotSteel -> RE: Court Rules: Atheism is a Religion (10/16/2011 6:08:39 AM)

quote:

ORIGINAL: tazzygirl
Ya gotta admit, GS, its a bit hard to get past.... lol... but thankfully its gone, and I did read the site.

Yeah...sorry about that, it's the wonderful and horrible thing about wiki. The same feature that makes it the atheism encyclopedia entree actually written by the atheist community also makes it susceptible to trolling.

quote:

ORIGINAL: tazzygirl
So, according to what I read, that would make me an atheist? Not too sure I agree with that.

Since you've always refused to tell me your position I cannot comment on that in any meaningful way [sm=dunno.gif]




tazzygirl -> RE: Court Rules: Atheism is a Religion (10/16/2011 9:27:13 AM)

LOL

I did tell everyone my position.

Were you gone then? I dont remember.

It got rather long winded... but here is the thread.

http://www.collarchat.com/fb.asp?m=3643096




Real0ne -> RE: Court Rules: Atheism is a Religion (10/16/2011 11:26:39 AM)

quote:

ORIGINAL: gungadin09

quote:

ORIGINAL: HeatherMcLeather

quote:

Either here or there, Heather's position is wrong.
No, I don't think it is, because they aren't interpreting the words in this case, they are following them.


No.  The phrase "...shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion" is also understood to include irreligion.  (Ex. Employers aren't allowed to use religion OR irreligion as a criteria for who they hire.)  Classifying irreligion as a kind of religion requires considerable stretching of the word "religion".  It's been said that if you really want a word to mean something, you can find some dictionary or other that will define it that way... but i doubt there's any dictionary on earth that defines irreligion as a kind of religion.  Atheism, maybe, but irreligion?  No.  i'm sorry, but THAT is an interpretation, and a broad one. 
~snip
Defining the absence of religious belief as a religious belief, and hence, as a religion requires considerable imagination on the courts part. 

i'm beginning to think they're right.  It's clear that the first amendment was always intended to protect a person's freedom NOT to follow a religion, too.  i think the courts are right in this case to interpret the law not as it reads, but as it must really mean.

pam



If atheism is a religion then it protects atheism does it not?

If your "BELIEFS" that you govern your life with, regardless of content are your religion, then whatever label you want to put on it is your religion is it not?

That is why I discounted the "not believe" versus "believe" argument because it is circular reasoning.

The reason it is circular reasoning leading to a specious argument is that if all beliefs that affect and/or result in acts of self government of the person holding those beliefs are in fact a religion then irreligion cannot exist except when one is dead and can no longer think.

How do you go into court to defend irreligion when all religions are based on beliefs regardless of which side of the fence they fall?

Everything in your mind that you have accepted is a belief, and beliefs create your religion.  Very simple imo.  It is impossible to conclude and accept without it being a belief.  Once you come to a conclusion the acceptance is the belief, hence religion.  Unless we want to say athiests do not make conclusions or think?

You can use modifiers and qualifiers etc to add certain flavors to whatever style religion one has chosen as their method of governance.

I need someone who buys this irreligion theory to explain and outline precisely how one can make a "determination on ANY matter" accept the results as correct or true, where it does not fall under a "belief" or "beliefs", which is the foundation and core of any religion, organized or personal.

To use the word irreligion is to claim that a person did not think.  Unless that is in fact the purpose of the word.  To demonstrate non-thinking?

See the inherent problems here......






FirmhandKY -> RE: Court Rules: Atheism is a Religion (10/16/2011 11:42:44 AM)

quote:

ORIGINAL: SpanishMatMaster

BTW: "An establishment" is always a noun. This is simple grammar. This is the reason why, in the sentence "An establishment is a verb" the verb is "is" and not "establishment", which is the subject of the sentence ("What is a noun?" "An establishment").

Or is English grammar so different...?

"An establishment ... " ... the act or an instance of establishing ... is the sense you are looking for, so yes, it can be an action word (verb) as well.

Firm




Real0ne -> RE: Court Rules: Atheism is a Religion (10/16/2011 11:44:29 AM)

quote:

ORIGINAL: HeatherMcLeather
The way I'm seeing it is that the establishment clause prohibits them from defining anything as a religion, or not a religion. "no law respecting an establishment of religion". They don't have the power to determine what is or isn't a religion, so everything in the field of religion is protected.


By that are you referring to ecclesiastic determination?  In that case I agree.

People often forget or want to forget that there is another side to law and that is ecclesiastic which is completely ignored (and should be) in these commercial political courts.

But on the other hand why would anyone want a commercial court to decide an ecclesiastic mattter?

The closest you can come is a court of "equity" as the kings claimed themselves to be God, and made those kinds of decisions in Chancery, hence you did your "PLEADINGS" with the intro We or I "pray"....[to the court*king*]  (NO SHIT)

Unalienable rights rights for most intent and purposes fall under the ecclesiastic side and there is no remedy to be had for those with religion except what the state gives them permission to have.

Hence the culture and religion destroyer, except for atheist government that thrives as atheist government is after all the final judge.

Religious rights never left the paper and in practice are completely non-existent.






Real0ne -> RE: Court Rules: Atheism is a Religion (10/16/2011 1:40:46 PM)

Give me one GOOD reason why the "STATE" had anything to do with a "MORAL" decision?  (except maybe to DO THEIR DUTY to ENFORCE this persons RIGHTS which they are held in TRUST by the Constitution CHARTER to do?)

Here is a perfect example and this is where they stole the first amendment from the people:  (keep in mind they stole the first 10 effectively nullifying them completely)



98 U.S. 145 (____)
REYNOLDS
v.
UNITED STATES.

Supreme Court of United States.


5. As to the defence of religious belief or duty.

On the trial, the plaintiff in error, the accused, proved that at the time of his alleged second marriage he was, and for many years before had been, a member of the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-Day Saints, commonly called the Mormon Church, and a believer in its doctrines; that it was an accepted doctrine of that church "that it was the duty of male members of said church, circumstances permitting, to practise polygamy; ... that this duty was enjoined by different books which the members of said church believed to be of divine origin, (belief, faith) and among others the Holy Bible, and also that the members of the church believed that the practice of polygamy was directly enjoined upon the male members thereof by the Almighty God, in a revelation to Joseph Smith, the founder and prophet of said church; that the failing or refusing to practise polygamy by such male members of said church, when circumstances would admit, would be punished, and that the penalty for such failure and refusal would be damnation in the life to come." He also proved "that he had received permission from the recognized authorities in said church to enter into polygamous marriage; ... that Daniel H. Wells, one having authority in said church to perform the marriage ceremony, married the said defendant on or about the time the crime is alleged to have been committed, to some woman by the name of Schofield, and that such marriage ceremony was performed under and pursuant to the doctrines of said church."

Upon this proof he asked the court to instruct the jury that if they found from the evidence that he "was married as 162*162 charged — if he was married — in pursuance of and in conformity with what he believed at the time to be a religious duty, that the verdict must be `not guilty.'" This request was refused, and the court did charge "that there must have been a criminal intent, but that if the defendant, under the influence of a religious belief that it was right, — under an inspiration, if you please, that it was right, — deliberately married a second time, having a first wife living, the want of consciousness of evil intent — the want of understanding on his part that he was committing a crime — did not excuse him; but the law inexorably in such case implies the criminal intent."

Upon this charge and refusal to charge the question is raised, whether religious belief can be accepted as a justification of an overt act made criminal by the law of the land. The inquiry is not as to the power of Congress to prescribe criminal laws for the Territories, but as to the guilt of one who knowingly violates a law which has been properly enacted, if he entertains a religious belief that the law is wrong.  (there you have it, *JUDGE DREDD* style atheist rulers of state forcing THEIR religion upon the people!!)   There is a reason sci fi is what it is LOL

Congress cannot pass a law for the government of the Territories which shall prohibit the free exercise of religion. The first amendment to the Constitution expressly forbids such legislation. Religious freedom is guaranteed everywhere throughout the United States, so far as congressional interference is concerned. The question to be determined is, whether the law now under consideration comes within this prohibition.

The word "religion" is not defined in the Constitution. We must go elsewhere, therefore, to ascertain its meaning, and nowhere more appropriately, we think, than to the history of the times in the midst of which the provision was adopted. The precise point of the inquiry is, what is the religious freedom which has been guaranteed.

Before the adoption of the Constitution, attempts were made in some of the colonies and States to legislate not only in respect to the establishment of religion, but in respect to its doctrines and precepts as well. The people were taxed, against their will, for the support of religion, and sometimes for the support of particular sects to whose tenets they could not and did not subscribe. Punishments were prescribed for a failure to attend upon public worship, and sometimes for entertaining 163*163 heretical opinions. (just like the state making polygamy a CRIME eh!!) The controversy upon this general subject was animated in many of the States, but seemed at last to culminate in Virginia. In 1784, the House of Delegates of that State having under consideration "a bill establishing provision for teachers of the Christian religion," postponed it until the next session, and directed that the bill should be published and distributed, and that the people be requested "to signify their opinion respecting the adoption of such a bill at the next session of assembly."

This brought out a determined opposition. Amongst others, Mr. Madison prepared a "Memorial and Remonstrance," which was widely circulated and signed, and in which he demonstrated "that religion, or the duty we owe the Creator," was not within the cognizance of civil government. Semple's Virginia Baptists, Appendix. At the next session the proposed bill was not only defeated, but another, "for establishing religious freedom," drafted by Mr. Jefferson, was passed. 1 Jeff. Works, 45; 2 Howison, Hist. of Va. 298. In the preamble of this act (12 Hening's Stat. 84) religious freedom is defined; and after a recital "that to suffer the civil magistrate to intrude his powers into the field of opinion, and to restrain the profession or propagation of principles on supposition of their ill tendency, is a dangerous fallacy which at once destroys all religious liberty," it is declared "that it is time enough for the rightful purposes of civil government for its officers to interfere when principles break out into overt acts against peace and good order."

In these two sentences is found the true distinction between what properly belongs to the church and what to the State.


In a little more than a year after the passage of this statute the convention met which prepared the Constitution of the United States." Of this convention Mr. Jefferson was not a member, he being then absent as minister to France. As soon as he saw the draft of the Constitution proposed for adoption, he, in a letter to a friend, expressed his disappointment at the absence of an express declaration insuring the freedom of religion (2 Jeff. Works, 355), but was willing to accept it as it was, trusting that the good sense and honest intentions of the people would bring about the necessary alterations. 164*164 1 Jeff. Works, 79. Five of the States, while adopting the Constitution, proposed amendments. Three — New Hampshire, New York, and Virginia — included in one form or another a declaration of religious freedom in the changes they desired to have made, as did also North Carolina, where the convention at first declined to ratify the Constitution until the proposed amendments were acted upon. Accordingly, at the first session of the first Congress the amendment now under consideration was proposed with others by Mr. Madison. It met the views of the advocates of religious freedom, and was adopted. Mr. Jefferson afterwards, in reply to an address to him by a committee of the Danbury Baptist Association (8 id. 113), took occasion to say: "Believing with you that religion is a matter which lies solely between man and his God; that he owes account to none other for his faith or his worship; that the legislative powers of the government reach actions only, and not opinions,

(which the supreme court UNLAWFULLY construed it to be their jurisdiction over ALL ACTIONS including "THE FREE RIGHT TO EXERCIZE"!  and that is how its done folks!!!)


— I contemplate with sovereign reverence that act of the whole American people which declared that their legislature should `make no law respecting an establishment of religion or prohibiting the free exercise thereof,' thus building a wall of separation between church and State.
Adhering to this expression of the supreme will of the nation in behalf of the rights of conscience, I shall see with sincere satisfaction the progress of those sentiments which tend to restore man to all his natural rights, convinced he has no natural right in opposition to his social duties." Coming as this does from an acknowledged leader of the advocates of the measure, it may be accepted almost as an authoritative declaration of the scope and effect of the amendment thus secured. Congress was deprived of all legislative power over mere opinion, but was left free to reach actions which were in violation of social duties or subversive of good order.

Polygamy has always been odious among the northern and western nations of Europe, and, until the establishment of the Mormon Church, was almost exclusively a feature of the life of Asiatic and of African people. At common law, the second marriage was always void (2 Kent, Com. 79), and from the earliest history of England polygamy has been treated as an offence against society. (It totally fucked up the aristocracies fucked up version of INHERITANCE RIGHTS!!)  After the establishment of the ecclesiastical 165*165 courts, and until the time of James I., it was punished through the instrumentality of those tribunals, not merely because ecclesiastical rights had been violated, but because upon the separation of the ecclesiastical courts from the civil the ecclesiastical were supposed to be the most appropriate for the trial of matrimonial causes and offences against the rights of marriage, just as they were for testamentary causes and the settlement of the estates of deceased persons.

By the statute of 1 James I. (c. 11), the offence, if committed in England or Wales, was made punishable in the civil courts, and the penalty was death. As this statute was limited in its operation to England and Wales, it was at a very early period re-enacted, generally with some modifications, in all the colonies. In connection with the case we are now considering, it is a significant fact that on the 8th of December, 1788, after the passage of the act establishing religious freedom, and after the convention of Virginia had recommended as an amendment to the Constitution of the United States the declaration in a bill of rights that "all men have an equal, natural, and unalienable right to the free exercise of religion, according to the dictates of conscience," the legislature of that State substantially enacted the statute of James I., death penalty included, because, as recited in the preamble, "it hath been doubted whether bigamy or poligamy be punishable by the laws of this Commonwealth." 12 Hening's Stat. 691. From that day to this we think it may safely be said there never has been a time in any State of the Union when polygamy has not been an offence against society, cognizable by the civil courts and punishable with more or less severity.

(and society was injured HOW???? EXACTLY????)  Did his cows crap all over town?  Break windows? What???????  (WELCOME TO THE DESERT OF THE REAL!) 


In the face of all this evidence, it is impossible to believe that the constitutional guaranty of religious freedom was intended to prohibit legislation in respect to this most important feature of social life. (No instead society supports marriage on sunshine days and divorce on rainy days!)  Marriage, while from its very nature a sacred obligation, is nevertheless, in most civilized nations, a civil contract, and usually regulated by law. (civil court making ecclesiastical rulings?)  Upon it society may be said to be built, and out of its fruits spring social relations and social obligations and duties, (subject-citizen *subject to the jurisdiction thereof*, with the duty to support the atheist state "Sovereign" king!) with which government is necessarily required to deal. In fact, according as monogamous or polygamous marriages are allowed, do we find the principles on which the government of 166*166 the people, to a greater or less extent, rests. Professor Lieber says, polygamy leads to the patriarchal principle, and which, when applied to large communities, fetters the people in stationary despotism, while that principle cannot long exist in connection with monogamy.  (see what they are doing people?)  Chancellor Kent observes that this remark is equally striking and profound. 2 Kent, Com. 81, note (e). An exceptional colony of polygamists under an exceptional leadership may sometimes exist for a time without appearing to disturb the social condition of the people who surround it; but there cannot be a doubt that, (and no evidence to support that claim!) unless restricted by some form of constitution, it is within the legitimate scope of the power of every civil government to determine whether polygamy or monogamy shall be the law of social life under its dominion.  KAASLOOSH that was AlL Bundi's Frasier Toilet flushing the religion of the people right down the crapper!!!.

In our opinion, the statute immediately under consideration is within the legislative power of Congress.   ( now we have the state issuing opinions!!! that which is reserved for the ecclesiastical )

It is constitutional and valid as prescribing a rule of action for all those residing in the Territories, (res-ident = thing identified) and in places over which the United States have exclusive control.

This being so, the only question which remains is, whether those who make polygamy a part of their religion are excepted from the operation of the statute. If they are, then those who do not make polygamy a part of their religious belief may be found guilty and punished, while those who do, must be acquitted and go free. This would be introducing a new element into criminal law.

Laws are made for the government of actions, and while they cannot interfere with mere religious belief and opinions, they may with practices.


There you have it a decision of complete abridgement of ANY claim to ANY RIGHT.

Suppose one believed that human sacrifices were a necessary part of religious worship, (it woulds sue out as a trespass and murder, a frivolous court argument!!) would it be seriously contended that the civil government under which he lived could not interfere to prevent a sacrifice? "Government "pre=emption" that has turned into mind reading today!"  Or if a wife religiously believed it was her duty to burn herself upon the funeral pile of her dead husband, (that is HER right and HER decision, HER body is HER property!) would it be beyond the power of the civil government to prevent her carrying her belief into practice?

So here, as a law of the organization of society under the exclusive dominion of the United States, (we is PWNED!)  it is provided that plural marriages shall not be allowed. Can a man excuse his practices to the contrary because of his religious belief? 167*167 To permit this would be to make the professed doctrines of religious belief superior to the law of the land, and in effect to permit every citizen to become a law unto himself. (Self governing which was in fact intended! Cant have that, No money in it!) Government could exist only in name under such circumstances. 

(In an advisory capacity NOT a police state as I have proposed since the beginning of time and as intended before the rights of the people were stolen and replaced by the rights of the king....I mean legislature).


A criminal intent is generally an element of crime, but every man is presumed to intend the necessary and legitimate consequences of what he knowingly does. Here the accused knew he had been once married, and that his first wife was living. He also knew that his second marriage was forbidden by law. When, therefore, he married the second time, he is presumed to have intended to break the law. And the breaking of the law is the crime. Every act necessary to constitute the crime was knowingly done, and the crime was therefore knowingly committed. Ignorance of a fact may sometimes be taken as evidence of a want of criminal intent, but not ignorance of the law. The only defence of the accused in this case is his belief that the law ought not to have been enacted. It matters not that his belief was a part of his professed religion: it was still belief, and belief only.

In Regina v. Wagstaff (10 Cox Crim. Cases, 531), the parents of a sick child, who omitted to call in medical attendance because of their religious belief that what they did for its cure would be effective, were held not to be guilty of manslaughter, while it was said the contrary would have been the result if the child had actually been starved to death by the parents, under the notion that it was their religious duty to abstain from giving it food. But when the offence consists of a positive act which is knowingly done, it would be dangerous to hold that the offender might escape punishment because he religiously believed the law which he had broken ought never to have been made. No case, we believe, can be found that has gone so far.

6. As to that part of the charge which directed the attention of the jury to the consequences of polygamy.

The passage complained of is as follows: "I think it not improper, in the discharge of your duties in this case, that you should consider what are to be the consequences to the innocent victims of this delusion. As this contest goes on, they multiply, 168*168 and there are pure-minded women and there are innocent children, — innocent in a sense even beyond the degree of the innocence of childhood itself. These are to be the sufferers; and as jurors fail to do their duty, and as these cases come up in the Territory of Utah, just so do these victims multiply and spread themselves over the land."

While every appeal by the court to the passions or the prejudices of a jury should be promptly rebuked, and while it is the imperative duty of a reviewing court to take care that wrong is not done in this way, we see no just cause for complaint in this case. Congress, in 1862 (12 Stat. 501), saw fit to make bigamy a crime in the Territories. This was done because of the evil consequences that were supposed to flow from plural marriages. All the court did was to call the attention of the jury to the peculiar character of the crime for which the accused was on trial, and to remind them of the duty they had to perform. There was no appeal to the passions, no instigation of prejudice. Upon the showing made by the accused himself, he was guilty of a violation of the law under which he had been indicted: and the effort of the court seems to have been not to withdraw the minds of the jury from the issue to be tried, but to bring them to it; not to make them partial, but to keep them impartial.

Upon a careful consideration of the whole case, we are satisfied that no error was committed by the court below.

Judgment affirmed.

MR. JUSTICE FIELD.


Not only does it violate freedom of religion and the EXERCISE thereof but it also violates the infinite RIGHT OF CONTRACT, interfering with said private contracts between man and woman!

The judge aka court should have recused itself from the case.

Well I got that far and now I am bored with all the highlighting to show how we got fucked since 1 day after the CONstitution and amendments were signed into organic law.

They use the MOB government to resolve all issues that have other solutions outside of government to promote themselves and leach off of us for what if we were organized would have other systems put in place such as a court not attached to government one for the people that would IN FACT protect our rights.


If someone in accord with their religion somehow causes you injury or damages your property then sue the shit out of them.  As soon as you legislate based on this bullshit you have violate my right as well as an atheists right to whatever religion I so choose and most importantly the free exercize thereof.

The court system should be sued and back charged for wating our money and time on these matters that were no their jurisdiction or place to lawfully adjudicate.  Rmember marbury!



I am still waiting for someone to respond philosophically grammatically logically whatever to the previous posts btw.










Hippiekinkster -> RE: Court Rules: Atheism is a Religion (10/16/2011 8:47:27 PM)


quote:

ORIGINAL: FirmhandKY

quote:

ORIGINAL: SpanishMatMaster

BTW: "An establishment" is always a noun. This is simple grammar. This is the reason why, in the sentence "An establishment is a verb" the verb is "is" and not "establishment", which is the subject of the sentence ("What is a noun?" "An establishment").

Or is English grammar so different...?

"An establishment ... " ... the act or an instance of establishing ... is the sense you are looking for, so yes, it can be an action word (verb) as well.

Firm

It's a noun.




SpanishMatMaster -> RE: Court Rules: Atheism is a Religion (10/16/2011 9:50:01 PM)

quote:

ORIGINAL: FirmhandKY

quote:

ORIGINAL: SpanishMatMaster

BTW: "An establishment" is always a noun. This is simple grammar. This is the reason why, in the sentence "An establishment is a verb" the verb is "is" and not "establishment", which is the subject of the sentence ("What is a noun?" "An establishment").

Or is English grammar so different...?

"An establishment ... " ... the act or an instance of establishing ... is the sense you are looking for, so yes, it can be an action word (verb) as well.

Firm


No, it is a noun. "act" is also a noun, as well as "instance". This is ground school knowledge.

"An establishment is an act". Analyse the syntax of this sentence. I tell you in Spanish, but I very much think that English is the same:
- Subject: "An establishmen".
- Verb: "is"
- Direct Object (the English name may differ): "an act".

The subject is composed on:
- An article: "An".
- A noun: "establishment".

The direct object is composed on:
- An article: "An".
- A noun: "act".

Both are numerable nouns: One establishment, two establishments. Even with the meaning you said - "the establishments of the new Bankan nations implied a loss of stability in the region which..." "those five establishments, Croatia, Serbia... followed each, its own internal dynamics..." "the acts of robbery and murder will be... those two acts are considered the..."

"I establish this": "establish" is here a verb, the verb of the sentence. But "an establishment" is always a noun. It cannot be something else. It can refer to a verb (like the word "verb") but it is a noun (like the word "verb", BTW, one verb, two verbs...).

Please consult any teacher in any school. Thank you.




Kirata -> RE: Court Rules: Atheism is a Religion (10/16/2011 10:17:38 PM)


quote:

ORIGINAL: Hippiekinkster

It's a noun.

Yes, it's a noun. But a noun can be the name of an action as well as an object. "She's a good fuck," for example. [:D]

I don't know if you were following earlier on, but xssve started this particular bit of weirdness by arguing...

"an establishment of religion..." what, "an establishment" like a bar?

A church is "an establishment", a building basically...


As you might expect, things went predictably downhill from there.

However, the use of "establishment" to name an action has remained substantially unchanged from 1828 (the closest I could find to the time in which the Constitution was written) to the present, and in the context of the First Amendment cannot be understood otherwise:

1. The act of establishing, founding, ratifying or ordaining ~Webster's 1828 Dictionary
1. The act or an instance of establishing ~Dictionary.com
1. The action of establishing something ~Oxford Dictionary

Naturally, I admit that these observations suffer the shortcoming of being limited to English and may not pertain to xssveian or Spanglish.

K.





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