DesideriScuri
Posts: 12225
Joined: 1/18/2012 Status: offline
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quote:
ORIGINAL: graceadieu quote:
ORIGINAL: DesideriScuri $35B in higher wages without $35B in greater productivity means....? Greater inflation. Now, the guy down the street who didn't get a wage hike is less stable. Perfect! The greater productivity has already happened, a raise in wage would just be catching up to that. According to the BLS, from 1947-2010, labor productivity in non-farm businessse rose by an average of 2.2% per year, compared with wages rising by an average of 1.7% per year. Until '79, wages almost kept pace with productivity, but since then, the wage growth has dropped off significantly. Manufacturing is even worse - during that same period, productivity rose by an average of 2.9% per year, while wages, after the late 70s, haven't risen at all. Source: http://www.bls.gov/opub/mlr/2011/01/art3full.pdf My use of the wrong word. Should have been: "$35B in higher wages without $35B in greater production...." Even taking higher productivity into account, what's driven that productivity? Is it the employees? Are the employees the cause of the higher productivity? Or, has it been capital improvements, including more/better technology and/or machinery? An improved process can make one guy more productive, even though that guy isn't any different than before. So, not only does the employer get to shell out money to improve the businesses hardware, the employer gets to pay the employee more for the employee's greater productivity due to the capital investment?!? If the higher productivity isn't because of an increase in an employee's skill, where is the rationale for paying more?
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What I support: - A Conservative interpretation of the US Constitution
- Personal Responsibility
- Help for the truly needy
- Limited Government
- Consumption Tax (non-profit charities and food exempt)
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