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RE: Soooo What gives the court supreme or otherwise jur... - 8/15/2015 7:34:09 AM   
Real0ne


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quote:

ORIGINAL: NorthernGent

Could be a moral judgement in the United States, wouldn't really know.

But, in England it's a judgement based upon the principles of democracy.

The judge in England could be a Christian, could despise gay men, but realistically he or she has no option but to come down on the side of the two gay men as there is a groundswell of support in the country for anti-discrimination measures.



How can democracy (politics) be a required element with regard to ones exercise of their own 'religion', if it had not caused personal injury, property damage, or put someone in imminent danger?

I am not familiar with the gay men case you are talking about?

While antidiscrimnation is a nice 'buzzword' of the day, how does it legitimately extend to overule the reservations of 'free right to *exercise* ones religion' stipulated in the constitution?

What democratic (political) principle extends this jurisdiction into religion?





< Message edited by Real0ne -- 8/15/2015 7:39:26 AM >


_____________________________

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Democracy; The 'People' voted on 'which' amendment?

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RE: Soooo What gives the court supreme or otherwise jur... - 8/15/2015 7:36:28 AM   
MercTech


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Morals, Ethics, Ethos...

Too often you see people elevating the ethos of their own little tribe to the status of a universal moral precept.
Abortion
Same sex marriage
Firearms ownership

In all three issues; you have those that claim some moral principal to their views but it really comes down to tribal ethos.
Take gun control:
Tribe A believes that personal ownership of firearms is necessary to the maintenance of a free society.
Tribe B believes that the desire to own an implement that could be used for destruction is an example of insanity and anyone that wants to own a gun should e incarcerated.
It all comes down to groups wanting to impose their tribal ethos on all others by threat of violence.

(in reply to Real0ne)
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RE: Soooo What gives the court supreme or otherwise jur... - 8/15/2015 8:06:12 AM   
Real0ne


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I dont suppose you would garner a huge following of disarming the US military.....er I mean not unless all weapons of all types were banned throughout the world.

I assume you are not saying or alluding that only the gubblemint should have weapons? every group starts with "1".

What specific tribe do you believe the religion term in the constitution applies to? I say none, I say all/any, each and every 'one'. It even applies to the atheistic variants of religion.

Why would I presume that these decisions apply to me if not part of my religion or circumstance?

Now the cake people, different story, it was 100% about their religion versus gay religion.

I'm sure I am sounding like a broken record but where does the gubblemint acquire the jurisdiction to judge religious cases in light of religion reserved as off limits?

The constitution was granted based on adherence to the contract, otherwise people had no reason to agree to be governed or grant any power what so ever to the gbmnt.






< Message edited by Real0ne -- 8/15/2015 8:24:26 AM >


_____________________________

"We the Borg" of the us imperialists....resistance is futile

Democracy; The 'People' voted on 'which' amendment?

Yesterdays tinfoil is today's reality!

"No man's life, liberty, or property is safe while the legislature is in session

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RE: Soooo What gives the court supreme or otherwise jur... - 8/15/2015 9:54:31 AM   
Kirata


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quote:

ORIGINAL: Real0ne
quote:

ORIGINAL: Kirata

From whence comes this assumption that "moral decisions are religious"? There are a number of things, murder, theft and dishonesty figuring prominently among them, that are considered unacceptable in virtually all human societies, and for the suppression of which a sufficient defense exists independent of religious or statutory law because, simply put, nobody wants to become a victim of murder, theft or dishonesty. Such universal human sentiments constitute a lex naturalis over which neither the state nor religion should hold sway.

I am not sure what you are arguing since as far back in time as I have seen philosophy has always considered the exercise of religion the resulting actions of 'conscience' based on right and wrong.

Unless you believe in a God who writes books, moral proscriptions originate in human nature. Kant himself, whom you cited previously, held that morality was wholly independent of religion.

quote:

ORIGINAL: Real0ne

Have you commingled politics with religion under one umbrella?

As a practical matter, there is no functional difference between an ideological zealot and a religious one.

K.


< Message edited by Kirata -- 8/15/2015 10:23:41 AM >

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RE: Soooo What gives the court supreme or otherwise jur... - 8/16/2015 11:58:41 AM   
Real0ne


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Nope not correct. or at a minimum not correct in the terms you are using it.

You are confusing hobbes or hume with kant, who postulate there is nothing more than what the senses can experience.

God is witnessed. People who possess the ability to extrapolate beyond the sense of what they can physically feel 'witness' Gods existence.

Kant postulated that for man to grow in 'reason' he must have the ability to reason beyond the sense of feel, the world of the atheist. Kant postulated the higher good which cannot be obtained in argument through locked strictly to what one can feel.

I'd have to give it some thought, but maybe the concept of moral theory 'alone' might be considered independent of religion but the very definition of religion is moral theory "put into practice'.

I dont see any relevance in your zealot statement? Is there some meaning I am supposed to draw from that? It seems I would be forced to agree that a zealot is a zealot is a zealot regardless of 'any' corresponding 'ism' one wants to attach.

That said your proposed argument lacks any kind of supporting arguments. For your version of kant I would need at a minimum a citation at this point since it runs contrary to what I know of kants philosophy, who postulated that morals are a product of the highest good which is not limited to the natural law alone but goes through and beyond it to examine the origins of the constructs of the natural law which cannot be explained on any reasonable thus taking us into the God zone if you will.

So your version limits and puts a cap on the extents of reason, kant holds that door open to allow for further expansion of reason.







< Message edited by Real0ne -- 8/16/2015 12:04:05 PM >


_____________________________

"We the Borg" of the us imperialists....resistance is futile

Democracy; The 'People' voted on 'which' amendment?

Yesterdays tinfoil is today's reality!

"No man's life, liberty, or property is safe while the legislature is in session

(in reply to Kirata)
Profile   Post #: 25
RE: Soooo What gives the court supreme or otherwise jur... - 8/16/2015 12:21:59 PM   
joether


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quote:

ORIGINAL: Real0ne
While antidiscrimnation is a nice 'buzzword' of the day, how does it legitimately extend to overule the reservations of 'free right to *exercise* ones religion' stipulated in the constitution?


OK, allow me to explain this to you. Your religious freedom ends where mine begins. Your religious freedom starts were mine begins. With me so far?

If you decided to be liberal (or free) with your religious freedom; I am allowed to be liberal (or free) with my religious freedom. Sooner or later (more likely sooner if we are ever expanding our religious borders) we will be in conflict. What your stating is that you should have.....MORE.....religious freedom over me. To which I say 'No'. If I can not have more religious freedom over you, you can not have more religious freedom over me.

That is why all persons are considered equal under the law. Not even a bunch of persons together have more rights over the one person. This is (hopefully) to keep a mob mentality from forming and preying on the minority group whom for any number of reasons does not have the power to resist the majority.

That I'm keeping this simplified on purpose. The actual details of these concepts are far more technical and complicate in their actual purpose of legal dynamics. Best to find common ground before moving on to the more technical/complex, right?

How do we as a society determine whom has the final say on the laws? According to the US Constitutions, this is the US Supreme Court. That it takes good arguments and judges to make good decisions. The stuff that arrives before the high court is often very complex in its nature However when arguments are irrelevant because the judges themselves are compromised for promoting political agendas, bad decisions soon follow (and take a future generation to correct).

quote:

ORIGINAL: Real0ne
What democratic (political) principle extends this jurisdiction into religion?


A document called the US Constitution. And the many legal laws created from the nation's start to 2015.

(in reply to Real0ne)
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RE: Soooo What gives the court supreme or otherwise jur... - 8/16/2015 12:30:50 PM   
joether


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quote:

ORIGINAL: MercTech

Morals, Ethics, Ethos...

Too often you see people elevating the ethos of their own little tribe to the status of a universal moral precept.
Abortion
Same sex marriage
Firearms ownership

In all three issues; you have those that claim some moral principal to their views but it really comes down to tribal ethos.
Take gun control:
Tribe A believes that personal ownership of firearms is necessary to the maintenance of a free society.
Tribe B believes that the desire to own an implement that could be used for destruction is an example of insanity and anyone that wants to own a gun should e incarcerated.
It all comes down to groups wanting to impose their tribal ethos on all others by threat of violence.


The moment 'tribe A' uses violence to push their political ideology onto 'tribe B'; 'tribe A' loses personal ownership of firearms. Because that is not a system of governing that is acceptable to Americans; it is the moves made by a tyrant.

Tribe C would like to have firearm ownership, but is sick of tribe A and B's beliefs. Tribe D feels firearm ownership should be best allowed to a very select few whom must not only pass but maintain a strict level of standards when operating in society. Tribe D either does not care on the topic, or is not sure which of the other tribes to join. Tribe E is to young and inexperience with laws, mankind and psychology at a micro and macro level to really give a good level of input. Tribe F does not care about the other tribes, because it'll use firearms regardless of the situation.

That you think there is only two tribes to that debate really shows the level of blissful ignorance to reality.

(in reply to MercTech)
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RE: Soooo What gives the court supreme or otherwise jur... - 8/16/2015 12:51:27 PM   
joether


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quote:

ORIGINAL: Real0ne
I dont suppose you would garner a huge following of disarming the US military.....er I mean not unless all weapons of all types were banned throughout the world.


We can't disarm the US Military because that would be a violation of the ACTUAL, uncorrupted version of the 2nd amendment.

I know there are many people in the nation and on this forum that are completely clueless about that version. They tend to be in tribe A too....

quote:

ORIGINAL: Real0ne
I assume you are not saying or alluding that only the gubblemint should have weapons? every group starts with "1".


Takes two people to form a group. The government has weapons because we the society that the government is built around, decided it to have weapons. But that is not the issue. At issue is whom and whom is not, allowed such arms.

quote:

ORIGINAL: Real0ne
What specific tribe do you believe the religion term in the constitution applies to? I say none, I say all/any, each and every 'one'. It even applies to the atheistic variants of religion.


The US Constitution does not need a religion to operate. Nor a religious organization/group to operate. It exists well outside the power, influence and domain of religion. And that we must always guard against people of religion seeking to harness the US Constitution for their own purposes. Thereby subjugating the will of the people to that religion.

Hence while there is the whole 'Separation of Church and State'. Or to place within the confines of our discussion and word usage.....Separation of Religion and Law.

quote:

ORIGINAL: Real0ne
Why would I presume that these decisions apply to me if not part of my religion or circumstance?


You can presume what you wish. When your found in violation of the laws, you'll be given the penalties.

quote:

ORIGINAL: Real0ne
Now the cake people, different story, it was 100% about their religion versus gay religion.


An they found out the hard way that while they have a religious freedom, it does not trump another's religious freedom as it concerns a business open to the public. The same will eventually happen to all those gun shops/ranges that place 'Muslim Free Zones' on their doors. The concept of using segregation created more problems than it solved. Why is it conservatives whom can't seem to understand this basic concept? Been around for over forty years!

quote:

ORIGINAL: Real0ne
I'm sure I am sounding like a broken record but where does the gubblemint acquire the jurisdiction to judge religious cases in light of religion reserved as off limits?


....say it with me....

"The US Constitution"! (Article 3)

quote:

ORIGINAL: Real0ne
The constitution was granted based on adherence to the contract, otherwise people had no reason to agree to be governed or grant any power what so ever to the gbmnt.


If you do not agree to be governed, then renounce your citizenship, effectively immediately and GET THE FUCK OUT OF MY NATION (just as fast)! Otherwise you are agreeing to the terms and conditions of the contract.


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Profile   Post #: 28
RE: Soooo What gives the court supreme or otherwise jur... - 8/16/2015 1:33:22 PM   
joether


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quote:

ORIGINAL: Real0ne
God is witnessed. People who possess the ability to extrapolate beyond the sense of what they can physically feel 'witness' Gods existence.


Really? You can witness your imaginary friend? So if I witness my imaginary friend that is the same thing? An therefore you have to follow that imaginary friend's views to which I'll happily relay it.

Let's start off. My imaginary friend tells me....

A ) Joether is the Supreme Ruler of Planet Earth!
B ) Joether is allow all the hot women on planet Earth (but he is generous and good, and will give many beautiful women to his bros and ladies (some could be lesbian and that is always good).
C ) Joether is never wrong.
D ) If you disagree with Joether your not allowed to live on Planet Earth.

Do you get the idea how fast that can get out of hand? That is why many people do not go along with each denomination's views on Christ and the bible. It allows to much corruption, tyranny, and evil to reign in the world. Or have you not studied any European history?

If God exists, that should make the process of proving his existence through science all the easier. To date, not one shred of evidence has been shown of this effect.....

I can not only show the existence of oxygen, but its weight at the atomic level. I can show that the internet has a physical existance. I can show how fast it takes light (from the ultra violet to the infra red) to travel from the Sun to Earth. Yet, I can not show the existence of God. Or his powers. But I can show the effects of people that do 'godly' things, or 'things in his name' to spread good and evil onto the world.

Every instance of 'God' I can insert 'imaginary friend' and 'space aliens' and it works to. Yet, no one has proved the existence of either.

quote:

ORIGINAL: Real0ne
Kant postulated that for man to grow in 'reason' he must have the ability to reason beyond the sense of feel, the world of the atheist. Kant postulated the higher good which cannot be obtained in argument through locked strictly to what one can feel.


The human body has five primary senses: Touch, Smell, Sight, Taste, and Hearing. We have grown beyond all of these to date thanks to technology. I can watch events unfolding on the other side of the planet in almost 'real time'. Yet i can not do that with my normal senses. I can feel the touch of a tennis ball that a person holds; because my memory can draw up the chemical notion of the feel from previous experiences (again, discovery by science).

I watch...ANYTHING....on the Food Network, and realize my McDonald's Quarter Pounder and fries just does not stack up to whats on the monitor! That I am hungry for the sort of food on display there. I can't watch that network between the hours of 2AM to 11AM in my area....

quote:

ORIGINAL: Real0ne
I'd have to give it some thought, but maybe the concept of moral theory 'alone' might be considered independent of religion but the very definition of religion is moral theory "put into practice'.


One can have morals without being a slave to a religion. Most agree that murdering someone in cold blood is evil and should be penalized for it (i.e. prison). This is correct in almost every religion and philosophy to mankind at current. Yes, each have a way of 'justifying' murder of another person; but that does not mean its still legal or just to do!

Since many in the United States believe (foolishly) that the United States of America is a Christian nation. Does that mean we should stone anyone to death that works on the Sabbath? Or can we out source that to illegal immigrants so that our hands are 'clean of guilt'?

As there are many people working on the weekend in retail.....

When was the last time you saw a stoning of workers at Wal-Mart on a busy weekend?

quote:

ORIGINAL: Real0ne
I dont see any relevance in your zealot statement? Is there some meaning I am supposed to draw from that? It seems I would be forced to agree that a zealot is a zealot is a zealot regardless of 'any' corresponding 'ism' one wants to attach.


While everyone has an ass, not everyone is an asshole.

quote:

ORIGINAL: Real0ne
That said your proposed argument lacks any kind of supporting arguments. For your version of kant I would need at a minimum a citation at this point since it runs contrary to what I know of kants philosophy, who postulated that morals are a product of the highest good which is not limited to the natural law alone but goes through and beyond it to examine the origins of the constructs of the natural law which cannot be explained on any reasonable thus taking us into the God zone if you will.


Natural Law is solely based upon the infrastructure that makes up modern Science. Since no one has come forward with actual hard evidence of the existence of God; does God exist? For the moment that is undetermined. But to say that anything we can not answer through science must therefore be in 'God's Realm', does not prove God's existence either. Since I can simply say all of that which is not explained is due to my imaginary friend. Or space aliens!

quote:

ORIGINAL: Real0ne
So your version limits and puts a cap on the extents of reason, kant holds that door open to allow for further expansion of reason.


An yet you place a limit by stating we all should be limited by this 'God' concept. Pot calling the Kettle Black it seems....

The difference between reason and free thought, is that reason has borders and definitions. Free thought is anarchy of limits. Knowing which tool to use and when, takes experience and knowledge. Thus, the creation of wisdom of that ability.







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RE: Soooo What gives the court supreme or otherwise jur... - 8/16/2015 3:37:59 PM   
kdsub


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Morality has no standing with the court...only the Constitution does. Their job is to make a judgement of the Constitutionality of the cases before them. If you want your baker to not have to bake a cake change the Constitution.

Butch

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RE: Soooo What gives the court supreme or otherwise jur... - 8/17/2015 11:16:06 AM   
Kirata


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I am not confusing Kant with anybody. Kant held that reason compels us to postulate a transcendental intelligence behind the Universe, but that is a separate matter from religion. It simply isn't true that "moral decisions are religious". All decisions and actions should be moral whether religious or not. Religion arguably should be morality in action, but for the most part it isn't. It's theology and superstition in action, and Kant was not kind to it. Exactly the same discrepancy is to be found in politics. Politics, too, should embody morality in action, but too often falls short. Politics and religion are joined at the hip in that regard. But the concept applies universally, and you yourself quoted it.

The goal of humanity is to reach a point where all interpersonal interactions are conducted in accordance with reason, and hence in accordance with the moral law

K.




< Message edited by Kirata -- 8/17/2015 11:28:57 AM >

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RE: Soooo What gives the court supreme or otherwise jur... - 8/18/2015 12:31:39 PM   
Real0ne


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Sorry but in your previous post you are confusing Humes work with kants, (I looked it up), in that kants work does not 'stop' there.

That said, in your defense, kants discourse on the narrowly argued 'PURE' reason he is forced to agree with Hume on certain elements, as you pointed out, of humes arguments, so though he said it in argument it was only preliminary, a sort of preview forming the building blocks to later arguments added in support of the necessary and larger boundaries and scope of functional human reason which you would see further details in his discourse on "PRACTICAL' reason and his critique on 'RELIGION' (and several more) demonstrating the requirements of an integrated 'system' to properly answer the question. That said we cant approach this by analysing a carburator with the idea it properly describes the whole car or its purpose or how it serves or must serve us.

That said I pulled several excerpts from several sources quoting kant that you may find intriguing. When I was young, about 100 years ago I picked up his discourse on 'pure' reason and was not able to put it down. That was the beginning of mega hours of reading for me.

Normally I refrain from posting walls of text but this has many facets that must be examined to even scrape the surface so enjoy:

The influence of Augustine in the subsequent history of ethics resulted from the fact that it was his synthesis of Christianity (the official religion of the Roman Empire after 325) and Greek philosophy that survived the destruction of the Western Roman Empire, especially in the monasteries where the texts were still read. Boethius (c. 480–524) gave us the definition of the concept of ‘person’ that has been fundamental to ethical theory. To understand this, we need to go back into the history of the development of the doctrine of the Trinity. The church had to explain how the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit could be distinct and yet not three different gods. They used, in Latin, the term persona, which means ‘role’ but which was also used by the grammarians to distinguish what we call ‘first person, second person and third person’ pronouns and verb-forms. The same human being can be first person ‘I’, second person ‘you’, and third person ‘he’ or ‘she’, depending on the relations in which he or she stands. The doctrine of the Trinity comes to be understood in terms of three persons, one God, with the persons standing in different relations to each other. But then this term ‘person’ is also used to understand the relation of the second person's divinity to his humanity. The church came to talk about one person with two natures, the person standing under the natures. This had the merit of not making either the humanity or the divinity less essential to who Jesus was. Plato and Aristotle did not have any term that we can translate ‘person’ in the modern sense, as someone (as opposed to something) that stands under all his or her attributes. Boethius, however, defines ‘person’ as ‘individual substance of rational nature,’ a key step in the introduction of our present concept.


The reentry of Aristotle into Europe caused a rebirth (a ‘renaissance’), but it also gave rise to a crisis, because it threatened to undermine the harmony established from the time of Augustine between the authority of reason, as represented by Greek philosophy, and the authority of faith, as represented by the doctrines of the Christian church. There were especially three ‘errors of Aristotle’ that seemed threatening: his teaching that the world was eternal, his apparent denial of personal immortality, and his denial of God's active agency in the world. (See, for example, Bonaventure, In Hexaemeron, VI.5 and In II Sent., lib. II, d.1, pars 1, a.1, q.2.) These three issues (‘the world, the soul, and God’) become in one form or another the focus of philosophical thought for the next six centuries.


Thomas Aquinas (c. 1224–74) undertook the project of synthesis between Aristotle and Christianity, though his version of Christianity was already deeply influenced by Augustine, and so by Neo-Platonism. Aquinas, like Aristotle, emphasized the ends (vegetative, animal and typically human) given to humans in the natural order. He described both the cardinal virtues and the theological virtues of faith, hope and love, but he did not feel the tension that current virtue ethicists sometimes feel between virtue and the following of rules or principles. The rules governing how we ought to live are known, some of them by revelation, some of them by ordinary natural experience and rational reflection. But Aquinas thought these rules consistent in the determination of our good, since God only requires us to do what is consistent with our own good. Aquinas's theory is eudaimonist; ‘And so the will naturally tends towards its own last end, for every man naturally wills beatitude. And from this natural willing are caused all other willings, since whatever a man wills, he wills on account of the end.’ (Summa Theologiae I, q.60. a.2) God's will is not exercised by arbitrary fiat; but what is good for some human being can be understood as fitting for this kind of agent, in relation to the purpose this agent intends to accomplish, in the real environment of the action, including other persons individually and collectively. The principles of natural moral law are the universal judgments made by right reasoning about the kinds of actions that are morally appropriate and inappropriate for human agents. They are thus, at least in principle and at a highly general level, deducible from human nature. Aquinas held that reason, in knowing these principles, is participating in the eternal law, which is in the mind of God (Summa Theologiae I, q.91. a.2).


Everything in the universe is necessary, and there is no free will, except in as far as Spinoza is in favor of calling someone free who is led by reason (Ethics, I, prop. 32). Each human mind is a limited aspect of the divine intellect. On this view (which has its antecedent in Stoicism) the human task is to move towards the greatest possible rational control of human life. Leibniz was, like Descartes, not primarily an ethicist. He said, however, that ‘the highest perfection of any thinking being lies in careful and constant pursuit of true happiness’ (New Essays on Human Understanding, XXI, 51). The rationalists were not denying the centrality of God in human moral life, but their emphasis was on the access we have through the light of reason rather than through sacred text or ecclesiastical authority.

He [Kant] then adds a bold idea, which breaks with his own previous orthodox theological concept of a transcendent God. Developing his old notion of God as “an ideal of human reason,” he identifies God with our concept of moral duty rather than as an independent substance. This notion of an immanent God (that is, one internal to our world rather than transcendently separate from it), while not carefully worked out by Kant himself, would be developed by later German Idealists (most significantly, Hegel). While conceding that we think of God as an omnipotent, omniscient, and omnibenevolent personal Being, Kant now denies that personality can be legitimately attributed to God—again stepping out of mainstream Judeo-Christian doctrine. Also, rather than still postulating God as an independent reality, he here says that “God and the world are correlates,” interdependent and mutually implicating one another.

Kant goes on to condemn Spinoza’s panentheistic conception of God (that is, the view also found in Hegel, that God contains our world rather than transcending it) as outlandish “enthusiastic” fanaticism. In fact, he suggests the inverse—instead of holding that we are in God, Kant now indicates that God is in us, though different from us, in that God's reality is ideal rather than substantial. He proceeds to maintain that not only God is infinite, but so are the world and rational freedom, identifying God with “the inner vital spirit of man in the world.” Kant makes one final controversial claim when he denies that a concept of God is even essential to religion (Opus, pp. 200-204, 210-211, 213-214, 225, 229, 231, 234-236, 239-240, and 248).

Kant also argues that the morality of an action is a function of the internal forces that motivate one to act, rather than of the external (physical) actions or their consequences.

Thus metaphysics for Kant concerns a priori knowledge, or knowledge whose justification does not depend on experience; and he associates a priori knowledge with reason. The project of the Critique is to examine whether, how, and to what extent human reason is capable of a priori knowledge.

In spite of what he may have perceived as weaknesses in some of the "classic" proofs, he remained a strong believer in God throughout his life.

"But if we ask who has so firmly established the laws of nature and who has limited its operations, then we will come to God as the supreme cause of the entirety of reason and nature." (Kant, 25)

"The world depends on a supreme being, but the things in the world all mutually depend on one another. Taken together they constitute a complete whole." (Kant, 1978, 22)

From the very beginning of The Critique of Pure Reason Kant insists on the limits of human knowledge: our knowledge cannot reach beyond human experience and our experience is confined to the natural world. The deficiency is not easily remediable, since it arises from the limits and failings of human reason, which “is burdened by questions which, as prescribed by the very nature of reason itself, it is not able to ignore, but which as transcending all its powers, it is also not able to answer.” (CPR, Avii).

In the Doctrine of Method and in the Critiqueof Practical Reason he identifies three postulates of God, freedom, and immorality, of which two are readily construed as articles of faith.

Notoriously Kant puts forward a very strong account of what we must hope in the Critique of Practical Reason. He there argues not only that we must hope that the moral intention can be inserted into the world to some extent, but that we must hope that the moral and natural orders can be fully coordinated in an optimal way in which happiness and virtue, our natural and our moral
ends, are eventually perfectly coordinated in each of us.

These demanding hopes are presented as requiring certain Postulates of Practical Reason. On Kant’s account a postulate is a theoretical proposition which is not as such [i.e., theoretically] demonstrable but which is an inseparable corollary of an a priori unconditionally valid practical law. (CPrR 122)

In the second Critique Kant argues for the demanding claim that we must aim not only to introduce the moral intention into the world but to work toward the summum bonum or complete coordination of natural and moral good, of happiness and virtue, in each free agent, so must hope for a correspondingly strong and complete degree of coordination between the natural and the
moral order, and so must postulate or hope for our own immortality and for the existence of God:

This infinite progress is possible, however, only under the presupposition of an infinitely enduring existence and personality of the same rational being; this is called the immortality of the soul. Thus the highest good is practically possible only on the supposition of the immortality of the soul. . . . (CPrR 122) Accordingly each of us may hope for a further uninterrupted continuance of this progress, however long his existence may last, even beyond this life. (CPrR 123)

Hence, Kant holds, we must also postulate the existence ... of a cause of the whole of nature, itself distinct from nature, which contains the ground of the exact coincidence of happiness with morality . . . the highest good is possible in the world only on the supposition of a supreme cause of nature which has a causality corresponding to the moral disposition. (CPrR 125)

If we aimed only for a lesser degree of happiness or of virtue, or for a lesser degree of their coordination, we might need to adopt only lesser postulates or hopes. However, the maximal aim would make little sense unless one also hoped for or assumed an eternity to achieve it and a deity to make it possible. The strong and specific claims about what we must hope that Kant defends in the Critique of Practical Reason are plausible if, but only if, we
find good reasons for the assumption that we must take it that a complete coordination of happiness and virtue in each of us is on the cards.

Many moves in this passage mirror those by which Kant argued in the second Critique to God and immortality: we are committed to moral aims whose feasibility we cannot prove theoretically; to make sense of this we need to postulate, assume, or hope for a 13 Cf.

human future that allows room for human progress (not in this case necessarily for progress to perfection); these hopes for the future of humankind cannot be renounced if we are committed to morality. Here and elsewhere Kant pictures human destiny in this worldly terms.

Only if any answer to the question “What may I hope?”

What are we to make of this apparent shift in Kant’s views?

Kant does not provide any basis for boasting that we know that there is a God and a future life, or even that we know that history will allow for progress. His account of what we must hope is, after all, only an account of the required core of hope that we must adopt to achieve consistency. It may be only this required core of hope that we are given grounds to think of as reasoned hope (a successor to docta spes).

This core of hope is cognitively simple and indeterminate. It is merely formal, or negative, unlike more determinate hopes for God and immortality or for specific modes of historical progress. It is nonderivative in the sense that it does not invoke or presuppose the authority of any particular metaphysical system or religious revelation, or of any church, or state, or other power. More over it is lawlike in the sense that these minimal hopes are hopes that everyone can have, indeed hopes that everyone who is committed to knowledge and action has reason to share.

In the second of these lectures I shall consider some of the accounts of permitted hope that can be found in Religion within the Limits of Reason Alone and ask whether Kant offers us reason to think that these more resonant hopes too lie within the limits of reason.

The distinctions between philosophical and biblical theology are a major theme also of Kant’s Conflict of the Faculties, published a year later. There (as also in What Is Enlightenment?; also in Kant: Political Writings) he cites obedience to the state as the ultimate reason why biblical theologians may not appeal to reason: “the biblical theologian . . . draws his teaching not from reason but from the Bible; ... As soon as one of these faculties presumes to mix with its teachings something it treats as derived from reason, it offends against the authority of the government that issues orders through it” (CF 23).

Moreover, like the Critique of Practical Reason, Religion within the Limits of Reason Alone takes up the question “What may I hope?” Here too Kant insists that hope forms the bridge that renders our dual commitment to knowledge and to moral action coherent. Our moral ambitions, indeed our moral intentions and our very plans of action, cannot be fully grounded in knowledge: we lack not only the relevant knowledge that the world is open to the possibility of moral or other intervention, but even the self-knowledge that would assure us that we are committed to moral action:

Man cannot attain naturally to assurance concerning such a [moral] revolution ... for the deeps of the heart (the subjective first grounds of his maxim) are inscrutable to him. Yet he must be able to hope through his own efforts to reach the road which leads hither. .. because he ought to become a good man.
(R 46)

Kant can be as scathing as any deist in his denunciation of popular superstition, which he castigates as religious illusion (R 156ff.), and of clericalism, which he denounces as fetishism “which borders very closely on paganism” (R 168):

yet he [Kant] does not denounce or renounce Scripture. Rather he regards it as important to show that Scripture can or may be read in a certain way.




So, most people probably took one look at that wall of text and gasp. Even all that is not sufficient to properly frame the arguments on the table right now, especially those who want extensive proofs.

The problem you are faced with in the secular/atheistic approach is that it limits or caps what morals are bonafide to the original postulates of 'pure' reason with the presumption the existence of God may only be proven through narrow ontological boundaries of pure reason alone, which is cherry picking to presume a predetermined result rather than to gain a complete understanding.

That said, your version without God, allows one to reason that genocide is good because it serves 'reason', despite that reason could be a ruthless dictator mudring anyone in opposition or a tyrannical gubblemint destroying lives with its pen through its judicial 'reasoning'.

Below is the link where some of the above quotes come from and it does support my reasoning on religion as I have stated many times in other threads pointing out and demonstrating that atheism and the governments secular humanism are not excluded from being a 'religion'.



http://tannerlectures.utah.edu/_documents/a-to-z/o/oneill97.pdf













< Message edited by Real0ne -- 8/18/2015 1:26:13 PM >


_____________________________

"We the Borg" of the us imperialists....resistance is futile

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Yesterdays tinfoil is today's reality!

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Profile   Post #: 32
RE: Soooo What gives the court supreme or otherwise jur... - 8/18/2015 12:50:18 PM   
Real0ne


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quote:

ORIGINAL: joether
The US Constitution does not need a religion to operate. Nor a religious organization/group to operate. It exists well outside the power, influence and domain of religion.


The administration has none the less become a religion and they are operating as such. A grossly corrupt religion at that.

They have convinced people that this:

"If you want your baker to not have to bake a cake change the Constitution."

is by some stretch of imagination 'equality' when just the opposite is the reality, despite the fact that the bakers decision not to bake a cake is a expressly reserved and protected act spelled out plain as day in the constitution.



quote:

ORIGINAL: joether
OK, allow me to explain this to you. Your religious freedom ends where mine begins. Your religious freedom starts were mine begins. With me so far?


yes that would agree with your other post:


quote:

ORIGINAL: joether

Let's start off. My imaginary friend tells me....

A ) Joether is the Supreme Ruler of Planet Earth!
B ) Joether is allow all the hot women on planet Earth (but he is generous and good, and will give many beautiful women to his bros and ladies (some could be lesbian and that is always good).
C ) Joether is never wrong.
D ) If you disagree with Joether your not allowed to live on Planet Earth.


I expect that was a typo, but I couldnt resist!



< Message edited by Real0ne -- 8/18/2015 1:07:15 PM >


_____________________________

"We the Borg" of the us imperialists....resistance is futile

Democracy; The 'People' voted on 'which' amendment?

Yesterdays tinfoil is today's reality!

"No man's life, liberty, or property is safe while the legislature is in session

(in reply to joether)
Profile   Post #: 33
RE: Soooo What gives the court supreme or otherwise jur... - 8/18/2015 1:23:26 PM   
Kirata


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quote:

ORIGINAL: Real0ne

...your version without God, allows...

I never proposed a "version without God," so you're just wasting your time with these arguments.

K.






< Message edited by Kirata -- 8/18/2015 1:30:30 PM >

(in reply to Real0ne)
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RE: Soooo What gives the court supreme or otherwise jur... - 8/18/2015 1:28:50 PM   
Real0ne


Posts: 21189
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quote:

ORIGINAL: Kirata


I am not confusing Kant with anybody. Kant held that reason compels us to postulate a transcendental intelligence behind the Universe, but that is a separate matter from religion. It simply isn't true that "moral decisions are religious". All decisions and actions should be moral whether religious or not. Religion arguably should be morality in action, but for the most part it isn't. It's theology and superstition in action, and Kant was not kind to it. Exactly the same discrepancy is to be found in politics. Politics, too, should embody morality in action, but too often falls short. Politics and religion are joined at the hip in that regard. But the concept applies universally, and you yourself quoted it.

The goal of humanity is to reach a point where all interpersonal interactions are conducted in accordance with reason, and hence in accordance with the moral law

K.






sorry you cant have it both ways at the same time. Either that or maybe there is some hidden salient point in there somewhere that isnt obvious?





< Message edited by Real0ne -- 8/18/2015 1:31:30 PM >


_____________________________

"We the Borg" of the us imperialists....resistance is futile

Democracy; The 'People' voted on 'which' amendment?

Yesterdays tinfoil is today's reality!

"No man's life, liberty, or property is safe while the legislature is in session

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Profile   Post #: 35
RE: Soooo What gives the court supreme or otherwise jur... - 8/18/2015 1:32:46 PM   
Kirata


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From: USA
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quote:

ORIGINAL: Real0ne
quote:

ORIGINAL: Kirata

I am not confusing Kant with anybody. Kant held that reason compels us to postulate a transcendental intelligence behind the Universe, but that is a separate matter from religion. It simply isn't true that "moral decisions are religious". All decisions and actions should be moral whether religious or not. Religion arguably should be morality in action, but for the most part it isn't. It's theology and superstition in action, and Kant was not kind to it. Exactly the same discrepancy is to be found in politics. Politics, too, should embody morality in action, but too often falls short. Politics and religion are joined at the hip in that regard. But the concept applies universally, and you yourself quoted it.

The goal of humanity is to reach a point where all interpersonal interactions are conducted in accordance with reason, and hence in accordance with the moral law

sorry you cant have it both ways at the same time.


I have no idea what you think you're talking about.

K.

(in reply to Real0ne)
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RE: Soooo What gives the court supreme or otherwise jur... - 8/18/2015 1:42:16 PM   
Real0ne


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it started here, I am rebutting your arguments, or what appear to be your arguments point by point.


quote:

ORIGINAL: Kirata


quote:

ORIGINAL: Real0ne

I would like to hear on what grounds people think they are or are not qualified to make all these moral decisions when moral decisions are religious?

From whence comes this assumption that "moral decisions are religious"?

K.




While not every moral decision is religious, the greater majority of them are in fact religious.

You asked the question, I attempted to answer it as I said addressing your arguments one at a time, with as few accommodating quotes as possible, but leaving the punch line for readers to find out for themselves in the pdf link I posted that examines these very issues.

http://tannerlectures.utah.edu/_documents/a-to-z/o/oneill97.pdf

I believe it further proves that my claims have nothing what so ever to do with joethers imaginary friends or superstition. (by default the legislature and courts have become a religion unto themselves)

_____________________________

"We the Borg" of the us imperialists....resistance is futile

Democracy; The 'People' voted on 'which' amendment?

Yesterdays tinfoil is today's reality!

"No man's life, liberty, or property is safe while the legislature is in session

(in reply to Kirata)
Profile   Post #: 37
RE: Soooo What gives the court supreme or otherwise jur... - 8/18/2015 3:15:24 PM   
kdsub


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quote:

spelled out plain as day in the constitution.


Yes it is...too damn bad for you.

What qualifications do you have that would make your argument more compelling?

Butch

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(in reply to Real0ne)
Profile   Post #: 38
RE: Soooo What gives the court supreme or otherwise jur... - 8/18/2015 4:19:21 PM   
Real0ne


Posts: 21189
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quote:

ORIGINAL: kdsub

quote:

spelled out plain as day in the constitution.


Yes it is...too damn bad for you.

What qualifications do you have that would make your argument more compelling?

Butch



you are assaulting me with a backwards understanding of the constitution. and you want me to explain how my correct interpretation is more compelling?



The Free Exercise Clause not only protects religious belief and expression; it also seems to allow for violation of laws, as long as that violation is made for religious reasons. In the terms of economc theory, the Free Exercise Clause promotes a free religious market by precluding taxation of religious activities by minority sects.[3]

Constitutional scholars and even Supreme Court opinions have contended that the two religion clauses are in conflict. E.g., Thomas v. Review Board, 450 U.S. 707 (1981). As mentioned previously, the Free Exercise Clause implies special accommodation of religious ideas and actions, even to the point of exemptions to generally applicable laws. Such a special benefit seems to violate the neutrality between “religion and non-religion” mandated by the Establishment Clause. McConnell explains:

quote:


In 1940, the Supreme Court held in Cantwell v. Connecticut that, due to the Fourteenth Amendment, the Free Exercise Clause is enforceable against state and local governments.


It makes no difference if its presumed by gubblemint that its a violation of their authority since it is a 'reserved right' reserved to me for one, apparently not you?

While they are not allowed to 'legislate' their brand of religion, there is nothing stopping the courts from issuing opinions and judgments in favor of their religion or any religion of the day.

The two religion clauses are not in conflict and and draw a strict line where their commercial ventures end and our personal lives begin with respect to liberty.

The cake bakers rights were violated by subordinate gubblemint/judicial authority. Reserved Rights trump authority.

Do you comprehend what 'Free Exercise means'? If you feel its not what I am claiming then explain the way you think we should interpret it according to 'your' understanding.





< Message edited by Real0ne -- 8/18/2015 4:29:07 PM >


_____________________________

"We the Borg" of the us imperialists....resistance is futile

Democracy; The 'People' voted on 'which' amendment?

Yesterdays tinfoil is today's reality!

"No man's life, liberty, or property is safe while the legislature is in session

(in reply to kdsub)
Profile   Post #: 39
RE: Soooo What gives the court supreme or otherwise jur... - 8/18/2015 5:36:52 PM   
kdsub


Posts: 12180
Joined: 8/16/2007
Status: offline
I am not assaulting you...lol... how can my way of thinking be backwards as opposed to yours when the law and judgment say I am right until a further judgement... You simply do not know what the hell you are talking about....but as usual that never stops you.

Butch

< Message edited by kdsub -- 8/18/2015 5:37:38 PM >


_____________________________

Mark Twain:

I don't see any use in having a uniform and arbitrary way of spelling words. We might as well make all clothes alike and cook all dishes alike. Sameness is tiresome; variety is pleasing

(in reply to Real0ne)
Profile   Post #: 40
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