BamaD -> RE: Purposeful Confusion? (9/14/2016 1:17:34 PM)
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ORIGINAL: WinsomeDefiance I seem to recall a few debates regarding rights vs privileges - so, I'm relatively certain that it has been stated, if not implied that rights and privileges are the same (and argued that they weren't.) I recall this, specifically, because at one time I considered them the same. After reading the points of views of others over the years, I came to the understanding that in regards to our Constitution and Bill of Rights, the word privilege is not a word I'd use to replace "rights." Whether it was used purposefully, to whittle away at our Constitutional Rights and weaken them, I doubt. At least, in context to the court case. Whether the legal wording was changed (or not) to do so, that I would consider a possible and likely scenario. I don't know if the wording was purposefully changed, or if it was simply a verbose way of speaking encouraged by council to 'sound pretty.' I genuinely have no idea. I mean, all they need to say is "I plead the 5th." All the rest of the verbiage is simply sound bites, as I understand it. Yes it has been stated on here that rights = privilages = rights . I agree with you that this is false, but it is a mindset to attack rights. If trial by jury is no more inshrined that driving a car then repealing that right while a big step it is not attack basic tenants of society. I don't see the statement that started the thread as a deliberate attempt to undermine the status of rights, I see it as a sign of the mind set of the people who did this. They actually believe that we don't have rights protected by the Constitution but privilages granted by it. Bill Clinton actually stated that rights were granted by the government showing that he considered our rights to be privilages.
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