LordODiscipline
Posts: 995
Joined: 6/28/2004 Status: offline
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I gave blood regularly until about ten years ago - then I was informed that "because you served in the armed forces and were station (even temporarily) in Britain and ate the food there, you cannot donate because of the possibility of Mad-Cow Disease" I was stationed there over twenty years ago. There is no "end cap" - so, assumably I shall never be able to give again. The rules are there to prevent anything from contaminating the supply due to things which might not be capable of being sited in the blood given. Mad Cow disease is impossible to identify in blood.. and, might not be spread by it - but, it is prevalent in the blood of people who ghave the full blown disease. AIDS might be in someone's blood for month previous to it being evident... they still do not have great tracking on that, as it is different individual to individual - but, they know that after X amount of months, it is evident or not there. So, therefore you have your waiting period. It is what they have to do to prevent others from getting it - and - from getting sued. ~J quote:
ORIGINAL: amaidiamond Good Evening Everyone, Not sure this is the right place for this thread but if it is out of place mods please move it :) Basically I was a little irate during the second half of my day at work, the reason for this is that I went at lunchtime for some information about giving blood, I never have done this before, always been to afraid but I thought I'd try and face my fear and help others. Now upon reading the literature I found out that I am not able to give blood, now as I don't inject drugs, never have, never will, am clean of disease, don't have casual sex etc so I would have thought that I was a good strong doner material, apparently not. The reason I am not able to give blood is believe it or not because my Dom is bisexual and has played with men in the past, the ruling states that if you are female you must wait 12 months before giving blood if your male partner has ever in his life been with other men, now this 12 months is since you had sex so if you have a long term male partner who is bisexual or even experimented in his younger years to find out you are well and trully out of the question. Now the bit that irks me is this, I understand that there is a higher risk of HIV between males that have anal sex, but oral? Why should there be a higher risk of HIV from oral sex be it male male or male female? Also why is it only that males that have had anal sex should be avoided? It mentions nothing at all about females that have and do have it. Basically it strikes me as strange that if you take two say, 20 year old people, one male one female, both bisexual, the male has anal sex, he is then counted out for blood donation for the rest of his life, the female however sleeps with this male and has anal sex (therefore being equally at risk) and then goes on to have anal sex with other partners who happen to be straight, in 10 years time the male is still out for the count but the female, though she could have had sex in a multitude of ways with a hundered different men is classed as "safe" So I ask, is this common sense? or is it discrimination? I'm interested in others oppinions. Thanks
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"Anyone who thinks they're important is usually just a pompous moron who can't deal with his or her own pathetic insignificance and the fact that what they do is meaningless and inconsequential." William Thomas
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