meatcleaver -> RE: Japan not the aggressor in WWII (11/2/2008 2:48:08 AM)
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quote:
ORIGINAL: HansBrinker quote:
ORIGINAL: meatcleaver quote:
ORIGINAL: slvemike4u Explain how that is Orwellian.....Or better yet answer this did or did not Japan start a shooting war in China.Please skip the justifications or the usual diversions into American/Western behavior.At it's core this is a rather simple question...and BTW there is only one answer ,and George Orwell has nothing to do with it.Let me help here the answer to the question posed is YES as is the answer to whether or not Japan was the aggressor and initiator of armed conflict in the Pacific Rim,twist it, turn it do what you like to it ,the answer is inescapable and incontrovertible. You start history at a convenient moment for your argument. The OP is about Japan being a aggressor, it was but so was the west. What the fuck were western powers doing in south Asia, having a cruise? No, they were involved in subjugating and exploiting countries in the region, Japan was the west's enemy because it wanted some of the action. The US justifies its wars by events at its convenience and them blames the enemy it attacks as being the aggressor, the Japanese officier is doing the same. What is the difference? If someone blockaded the USA, the USA would have no problem seeing that as an initial aggressive act of war. Countries have done far less for the USA to consider them having mounted an offensive action. Why the difference in interpretation? Don't tell me, it is just usual western hypocrisy Orwellian - Newspeak. ie. War is peace. ie Western subjugation and exploitation in SE Asia was not aggressive, it was civilizing the savages. Blockading Japan was saving the savages from other savages. If you are going to blame some Western power, then you should really blame the British. In the 1921 Treaty between France, Britain, Japan and the US, the British pushed to limit the size of the Imperial fleet. This more than anything else with the superior numbers of vessels by classes to the Western powers and limiting what the Imperial Fleet could have, was very much akin to the Treaty of Versailles and how it created the atmosphere that allowed Hitler to rise to power in Germany by 1932. The Treaty was for 10 years. But by the time it was over, the Imperial Army was looking to flex its muscles for sure. Expansion into China was first sought. The Emperor did not always know what the Army was up to for sure. The rape of Nanking and other autrocities on the Korean peninsula is what caused the Western powers to try and limit the expansion of Japan. Only when the British and US stopped the exports of raw materials to feed the military-industrial complex, did plans start to formulate to eliminate the US from the Pacific. Japan thought the US isolationist position would allow it to remain unchecked by France and Britain alone. Look how easy Singapore fell. So to say that the US of the 1940's was like that of today is just plain wrong! I have no problem in heaping blame on Britain, it was an imperial power whose sole reason for being in the region was exploitation like all the other western powers. Singapore fell through complancy and not believing little yellow men could take it. As for the rise of Hitler. The French and the Belgians were the main culprits in that affair in creating the situation and the resentment in Germany that Hitler was able to take advantage of. WWI expanding from European continental war to a world war can be put directly at Britain's door.
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