|
Arpig -> RE: christian terrorism? (6/5/2009 4:05:04 PM)
|
Ok, I get that, about the old coveneant and the new covenant, but what I asked was which parts of the old testament no longer apply. Consider the following questions
1) Is bestiality a sin? (according to Leviticus, yes).
2) Should someone guilty of bestiality be put to death? (according to Leviticus, yes).
If it is still a sin, based on the OT, then why should not those who commit it be put to death, based on the exact same passage of the OT. I fail to see how you can justify only part of what is said, and reject the rest. If in fact there is a new covenant that replaces the old, then surely the new replaces all of the old, not just certain parts of it.
Earlier you answered that "A lot of it is contextual." This agree with, however, who decides the proper interpretation of the context? Nowhere in the Gospels does it say just what happens to the old laws now that they have been fulfilled, though the context of the statement is that the laws remain, yet are some how completed or fulfilled, whatever that means. Either the laws are still in effect, or they are not, yet Jesus specifically said he was not there to abolish the laws, so clearly they were still in effect. Yet you feel free to disregard those sections of the law that you interpret as having been superceded, without any valid scriptural basis for that decision. Now when somebody else decides to keep the parts you have arbitrarily discarded, you claim they are not "true" christians. Without any scriptural basis for the decision of what to keep or discard, every interpretation of it is equally valid, regardless of the contradictions this may or may not create with other parts of the Bible.
Anyway, I am sure I could go on clarifying the question, yet it still remains unanswered....What parts of the OT no longer apply, and on what authority does this judgement rest?
|
|
|
|
