Sarahsubmits -> RE: On addiction and D/s (7/2/2009 6:01:11 AM)
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ORIGINAL: CallaFirestormBW quote:
If someone forced a drunk person to sign a contract, wouldn't there be some taking of advantage? If someone put a date rape drug in a girl's drink, did she consent? If someone is clearly impaired, can they consent in a way that has meaning? [For those who don't know, I use the gender-neuter pronouns 'hir' and 'xhe' in my writing -- just letting folks know so it doesn't side-track/derail the discussion] I had been attempting to hold off on responding to any of these prior to reading through existing commentary, but this one... UGH! This one just chapped my delicate posterior! 1. An individual who is FORCED to do anything has not -consented-. Consent is a VOLUNTARY PROCESS by which an individual agrees to something, of hir own free will. FORCED=COERSION, CONSENT=AGREEMENT... get it? 2. Date rape drug=Coersion unless both parties have agreed to use it -beforehand-... in which case it becomes consensual and nobody else gets to judge. 3. Who gets to decide what is "clearly impaired"? See, for me, I get to decide. If I am considering scening with someone, I get to decide whether I think playing with that person is in my best interests, and if I have an issue with hir state of impairment, I GET TO SAY NO! If xhe wants to go out and find someone -else- to play with, and can get someone ELSE to consent, hey, that's all on hir... but I take responsibility for MY choices, and the only other people whose choices I get to make are those who are subject to my authority BY THEIR OWN WILL. Now, you'll hear from some folks here that I'm a bitch and a half when it comes to the issue of consent. I don't do fantasy roleplay where people can say "Oh.... no...no.. no more.... no..more.....no.... more..... more... more..." The minute that first "no" comes out, that's it for me. But I refuse to acknowledge that you have any more right to decide who can and can't consent than the individuals involved in the direct negotiation, regardless of the issue up for discussion. Dame Calla But with the first example, if someone forced a drunk person to sign a contract... You go on very clearly that would be coercion. I agree! So if a submissive is in a place where she can't see clearly, don't doms make demands all the time that they are expected to obey? If he knows she is not doing so well, isn't that coercion by your own definition. Isn't he forcing her?
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