RapierFugue -> RE: Illegal to consent to sex? (2/5/2011 4:24:42 PM)
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ORIGINAL: Ishtarr The court ruled that a man, Alan, is no longer allowed to have sex with the man he is living with -his partner presumable- because Alan is deemed unable to consent to the act of having sex. Alan has an IQ of 48, and a learning disability. He's still several IQ points above some of CM's trolls and sock-puppets ... no wonder they're so unhappy :) quote:
ORIGINAL: Ishtarr Alan himself stated he finds the relationship enjoyable and wants it to continue. He has been placed under court supervision to prevent him from being able to do so, and to prevent him from being able to engage in sexual relationships with other parties. Oh dear lord ... legal minefield ... I mean, to me, it seems a shame that, if he can express clearly his approval of said relationship, then it's a shame it's being denied him, because it can't be much fun for him having a source of enjoyment removed. OTOH, the court is under an obligation to protect individuals who are intellectually sub-normal enough that they cannot be deemed to be able to make their own decisions. OTOOH, are we now saying people need to sit a test before they have sex? Actually, given some of the people I've met in my life, that wouldn't necessarily be a bad thing ... quote:
ORIGINAL: Ishtarr Do you feel that the court has any business stating that Alan is unable to consent? I think it does, yes. Because if he isn't capable enough to make his own mind up about certain things then someone has to, so it would presumably have to be a court. quote:
ORIGINAL: Ishtarr If so, does the same principal apply to BDSM? Well any “violent” acts would already be covered wouldn’t they? As in they can’t be consented to by anyone (certainly not in the UK after the Spanner case? Not sure). The voluntary/slavery aspects would also seem to be “wrong” from a court’s POV, so presumably they would also be banned/prohibited? quote:
ORIGINAL: Ishtarr And under what circumstances should the courts rule that people are not allowed to consent to legal acts they state they want to consent to? When they are deemed not aware or intelligent enough to make decisions objectively for themselves. I must admit though, it's a very thought-provoking topic, and one I’m not entirely sure my responses are correct about.
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