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ORIGINAL: darkinshadows
Your question on what constitutes 'sexual immorality' in IMO and in the study I have done, purely subjective, even from a christian standpoint. As lame as it may sound - what is a immoral act? Morality is defined by society. And morality is the acceptance of ones own behaviour and conduct. Morality is relative to the situation one is involved in at that specific moment. Morality is subjective - one persons morals do not have to be in tune with anyone else, but it does have to sit with comfort on ones own personal feelings.
Therefore, a sexual perversion is subjective as well as subject to consensuality in all aspects. Having sex in the park with your husband isn't sexually immoral persay, but it could be if witness by someone who did not consent to see it occur. Is that act more or less 'immoral' than two women having sex in the privacy of their own home?
While that is how many define morality today, is that how the Apostles defined it when they were making this decision?
In Matthew 8... the centurion asked Jesus to cure 'servant' who lay paralyzed and in great agony. The centurion stated that all Jesus had to do was to say the right words to effect the cure. Jesus spoke of the centurions faith and told him to return, for he was healed.
From the greek the centurion refered to the boy as 'pais' which is a reference often used of a young male slave kept for sexual purposes by his owner. The word 'pais' was replaced by religious scholars to 'servant boy' to remove the sexual reference. (GofLuke interpretation is somewhat different as there is no specifics to the sick boys age or illness').