fucktoyprincess
Posts: 2337
Status: offline
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FR If someone else has addressed this already, forgive me for repeating, but I just do want to clarify one thing. The way the Constitution was written, and then subsequently amended over time, has extended the right to vote to essentially all people over the age of 18 (independent of religion, wealth, race, gender). In some parts of the country, even non-citizens can vote for local elections (school board, etc.). Voting qualifications are left to the jurisdiction of the states, however, the state laws cannot run afoul of either the Constitution or the Constitutional amendments regarding voting. Originally, only white, property-owning males of any religion were allowed to vote. And I believe the voting age was 21 (?) because the 18 year old extension was a result of the Vietnam war. Since the original Constitution, constitutional amendments were made to extend the vote to poor whites, all blacks, women, 18 and older. State laws on voter qualifications cannot run afoul of these extensions. States can place restrictions to vote that do NOT run afoul of the Constitution and the amendments - in other words, the state law must NOT restrict the vote of people of any particular religion, or the poor, blacks, women, young adults. If it can be shown that the EFFECT of enforcing the state law would disadvantage any of these groups then the state law, however reasonable it may seem on its face, is unconstitutional.
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