lizi
Posts: 4673
Joined: 2/1/2009 Status: offline
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This doesn't really hold much water, if you are going back as far as Roman time there would be far too much intermixing between slave owners and slaves to make someone completely one thing or the other. Everyone on the earth by now is going to have some of both. Even if your family culture is not intermixed at all, say someone's family is French and have never intermarried with another culture, who is to say that every French person in the family were the pillagers and not the pillaged? How could you possibly take after one side or the other if they were intertwined? My ancestors on one side are Gypsy's, they have been fiercely persecuted throughout history and yet are independent of other cultures to the point where they reject a traditional lifestyle. How would you even begin to try to classify them as masters or slaves as far as personality or cultural mores? Yes, they've been enslaved, but also live a life of fierce independence. You could never convince me that some past enslavement and persecution have contributed in any way to a general wiring of that culture's people. I mean really, hasn't every culture in the world been underneath another at some point in time? How do you even begin to classify then if they are masters or slaves? Even the example you gave, Rome, fell to invaders. So the slave owners probably became slaves at that point.
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