DomKen
Posts: 19457
Joined: 7/4/2004 From: Chicago, IL Status: offline
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quote:
ORIGINAL: Marc2b quote:
You just wrote it. The amendment says it already. Where does it say it? I'm reading from the link you provided and it says: "Congress shall 5 have power to regulate the raising and spending of money 6 and in-kind equivalents with respect to Federal elections, 7 including through setting limits on— 8 ‘‘(1) the amount of contributions to candidates 9 for nomination for election to, or for election to, 10 Federal office; and 11 ‘‘(2) the amount of funds that may be spent by, 12 in support of, or in opposition to such candidates." Nowhere in there does it say that congress can't give ten million to incumbent Ricky Republican and only ten thousand to challenger Danny Democrat in one election and then turn around and give ten thousand to incumbent Donna Democrat and ten million to challenger Roger Republican in another election. Sure, the amendment makes a big deal about how all this is to "advance the fundamental principle of political equality for all, and to protect the integrity of the legislative and electoral processes . . . " but it doesn't actually mandate it. By not mandating it, it allow the very opposite to become enshrined in the Constitution. This amendment, as is, is a sure fire road to one party rule. I don't care which party that would be because when it comes to power corrupting, I don't trust the Democrats any more than I trust the Republicans. No. The amendment language is the whole thing which does include: "advance the fundamental principle of political equality for all, and to protect the integrity of the legislative and electoral processes" The courts would take that into account when evaluating any campaign finance law. And any law like what you are talking about would outrage the people and that is political suicide.
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