Aylee
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Joined: 10/14/2007 Status: offline
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quote:
ORIGINAL: Arturas quote:
ORIGINAL: Aylee quote:
ORIGINAL: Arturas quote:
ORIGINAL: Aylee quote:
ORIGINAL: Arturas quote:
ORIGINAL: dcnovice FR Constitution, Article I, Section 9 (excerpt): "No Capitation, or other direct, Tax shall be laid, unless in Proportion to the Census or enumeration herein before directed to be taken." Amendment XVI: "The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived, without apportionment among the several States, and without regard to any census or enumeration." Sorry I am so late in replying These do not conflict. The first deals with direct taxation for special needs of the Government, like war, and prevents one state from being taxed more than their population and general wealth can support. The second not so much, it deals with indirect taxation of the state, taxing on individuals income for example. We might mention also: Section 7. All Bills for raising Revenue shall originate in the House of Representatives; but the Senate may propose or concur with Amendments as on other Bills. Every Bill which shall have passed the House of Representatives and the Senate, shall, before it become a Law, be presented to the President of the United States; Here you see why the House is so important and how the income tax was proposed and then passed. Umm. . . no. Bills and amendments have different processes. True. Which is why after Section 7 was written the income tax does not have to be in the Constitution. What are you talking about? The 16th amendment is IN the Constitution. Glad you asked. Americans had been paying income taxes, starting in 1861, to pay for the War for States Rights, using the original Constitution article. The 16th Amendment was passed in 1909 to clarify the origiinal article, to overcome a challenge made to the income tax since it was not exactly levied as the Constitution specified, proportionally based on population of the specific state. Many consider the amendment illegal, tax protests still continue in modern times and it is challenged from time to time even today. No. Pollock v. Farmers' Loan & Trust Co., the U.S. Supreme Court declared certain taxes on incomes — such as those on property under the 1894 Act — to be unconstitutionally unapportioned direct taxes. "When, therefore, this court adjudges, as it does now adjudge, that Congress cannot impose a duty or tax upon personal property, or upon income arising either from rents of real estate or from personal property, including invested personal property, bonds, stocks, and investments of all kinds, except by apportioning the sum to be so raised among the States according to population, it practically decides that, without an amendment of the Constitution — two-thirds of both Houses of Congress and three-fourths of the States concurring — such property and incomes can never be made to contribute to the support of the national government." Enter the 16th amendment: "The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived, without apportionment among the several States, and without regard to any census or enumeration." The Revenue Act of 1861 and then 1862 were the taxes for the Civil war. The 1862 act specified that it would END in 1866. Again, you are wrong. You do not understand what you are going on about. FFS! The SCOTUS flat out SAID that an income tax would HAVE to be done by amendment to the constitution.
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Ceterum censeo Carthaginem esse delendam I don’t always wgah’nagl fhtagn. But when I do, I ph’nglui mglw’nafh R’lyeh.
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