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RE: Dominance in other Countries? - 11/4/2008 2:32:16 PM   
Rover


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quote:

ORIGINAL: SimplyMichael

By fucking definition, if the state is not protected from religion, then other religions are not protected from the state.  The framers knew that and so should we.


If they knew that, they did not say so or provide protections for it.  The modern interpretation did not exist until Everson v. Board of Education in 1947.
 
John

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RE: Dominance in other Countries? - 11/4/2008 4:28:13 PM   
ahumananimal


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quote:

ORIGINAL: Rover
At the risk of sounding repititious, you've again proven my point.... that the protections inherent to the Constitution are for the benefit of religion, to prevent intereference by government.  Not for the protection of government from religion.



John, you are well beyond sounding repetitious. You are not offering any new material here, and the burden of proof is upon you now. I have made my case, given you the black-and-white evidence in words, historical insights beyond snippets, reading material, and modern faith-based dialog on the matter.

There comes a point where debate turns into the Moron Olympics, and I believe we are crossing that threshold.

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RE: Dominance in other Countries? - 11/4/2008 7:33:47 PM   
Rover


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quote:

ORIGINAL: ahumananimal

There comes a point where debate turns into the Moron Olympics, and I believe we are crossing that threshold.


Please step to the podium for your gold medal.
 
John

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"Man's mind stretched to a new idea never goes back to its original dimensions."

Sri da Avabhas

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RE: Dominance in other Countries? - 11/4/2008 8:46:20 PM   
ahumananimal


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quote:

ORIGINAL: Rover

quote:

ORIGINAL: ahumananimal

There comes a point where debate turns into the Moron Olympics, and I believe we are crossing that threshold.


Please step to the podium for your gold medal.
 
John


Cute.

One more time...I invite you to offer proof Jefferson and Madison, through either their public or private statements, thought it was fine for religion to meddle with the state, or explain away why the Constitution was at that time and still is secular in construction. The lack of legal protections of the state from religion in the 1st Amendment hasn't been my debate here; it's the concept and the origin of the idea of "separation of church and state" and how the Founders were on to the need of this concept from the very beginning.

< Message edited by ahumananimal -- 11/4/2008 9:26:40 PM >

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RE: Dominance in other Countries? - 11/4/2008 10:14:51 PM   
MsDonnaMia


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quote:

ORIGINAL: Rover

quote:

ORIGINAL: MsDonnaMia


quote:

ORIGINAL: Rover


I need to revisit this issue for accuracy sake. Not all the corporations in this category failed to make a profit.


So much for my silliest tax argument ever, huh?



Yes, it was silly. Same as truncating my reply to leave out the other facts that don't fit your world view.

You implied that there was 1.2 trillion dollars that were avoiding taxes. I demonstrated that was not true... that the corporations either did not make a profit to be taxed or the taxes were paid as individual income because the corporations were individually owned.

Yep... silly.

John


Then I guess there's no funny business going on with corporations and taxes at all then, huh?

But GAO statistics say otherwise. 2/3 of U.S. corporations paid 0% taxes.

I already brought up the fact many llcs and s corps are filing under individual tax codes. There is a question if that's legitimate or not by the Cato institute and the GAO itself.
Look forward to you telling me i don't understand nothin'. you make me horny.

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RE: Dominance in other Countries? - 11/5/2008 1:55:16 AM   
JustDarkness


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just curious....in general


how is the dominance in other countries?

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RE: Dominance in other Countries? - 11/5/2008 2:24:24 AM   
susie


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quote:

ORIGINAL: JustDarkness

just curious....in general


how is the dominance in other countries?


Silly they are talking about the Revenue Service (or whatever they call it in the US). Probably the most dominant thing in the country! 

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RE: Dominance in other Countries? - 11/5/2008 3:59:26 AM   
JustDarkness


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I know..and taxes..lol..sounded some offtopic  grin

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RE: Dominance in other Countries? - 11/5/2008 4:37:05 AM   
Rover


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quote:

ORIGINAL: MsDonnaMia

Then I guess there's no funny business going on with corporations and taxes at all then, huh?


No, there's not.  The tax law is working exactly as intended.  Corporations that make no profits pay no taxes.  And corporations that are privately held can pay taxes as private individual income (subchapter "s", partnerships, sole proprietorships, etc).  There's nothing "funny" about that, and no profits are avoiding taxes.

quote:


But GAO statistics say otherwise. 2/3 of U.S. corporations paid 0% taxes.


And that's why it's dangerous to simply look at statistics without understanding them.  Try including these statistics from the US Census Bureau:
 
1.  Start with the fact that about 3/4 of all US firms have no payroll.  They have one person working... the business owner.  Consquently, they pay personal income tax on the profits they make.  Doesn't that make sense?
 
2.  Of the 5.88 million firms that do employ others, 4.6 million of them (or 78 %) employ less than ten people.  They're small, privately owned companies who pay personal income tax on their profits.
 
(source:  US Census Bureau - http://www.census.gov/epcd/www/smallbus.html )
 
You imagine these corporations to be large, multinational devils who are not paying their fair share.  And that's demonstrably not the case. 

quote:


I already brought up the fact many llcs and s corps are filing under individual tax codes. There is a question if that's legitimate or not by the Cato institute and the GAO itself.


There is a "question" about that?  Why, because they want small privately held companies with less than ten employees to be taxed twice as well (once as corporate tax, and whatever is left over taxed again as personal income)?  Seriously, there's no question as to where that question comes from... governmental greed (ie: we need more money, so how many gullible people are there out there).

quote:


Look forward to you telling me i don't understand nothin'. you make me horny.


I have no idea if you understand nothing or not.  But it's obvious you don't understand business tax policy.
 
John

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RE: Dominance in other Countries? - 11/5/2008 5:29:58 AM   
Rover


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quote:

ORIGINAL: ahumananimal

One more time...I invite you to offer proof Jefferson and Madison, through either their public or private statements, thought it was fine for religion to meddle with the state,


The best proof is in the document they wrote.  Let's take a closer look at First Amendment...

"Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the government for a redress of grievances."

It says clearly two things about religion.  First, that Congress shall make no law establishing a national religion, religious requirements, etc.  And second, it says that Congress shall not infring upon the free exercise of religion.  Both those prohibitions protect religion from government.  Nowhere does it offer a similar protection for government from religion.  These were smart folks, writing what they knew to be a legal document.  The protections for religion are quite clear.  If they desired to offer similar protections to government, it's natural to assume they would have been equally clear.  And if they were not, that was intentional.
 
Let's look further at the other rights enumerated in the First Amendment.  It uses the same language in offering protection to the freedom of speech and of the press.  You argue that such language (freedom "of" religion) offers both a protection to the people to practice the religion of their choice, and also means that the government enjoys a protection "from" religion.  And if so, the same language used to offer freedom "of" speech would also mean that the government has protection "from" speech.  Similarly, the same language stating a freedom "of" the press would mean the government also enjoys a freedom "from" the press.
 
Clearly, that is not the case.  The same terminology, contained in the same sentence, cannot mean one thing in one instance and something entirely different in another instance.  That's inconceivable, and you cannot make a cogent argument to the contrary.
 
Let's butress this intention with Jefferson's own words as he wrote to the Danbury Baptists:

"Believing with you that religion is a matter which lies solely between Man & his God, that he owes account to none other for his faith or his worship, that the legitimate powers of government reach actions only, & not opinions, I contemplate with sovereign reverence that act of the whole American people which declared that their legislature should "make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof," thus building a wall of separation between Church & State. Adhering to this expression of the supreme will of the nation in behalf of the rights of conscience, I shall see with sincere satisfaction the progress of those sentiments which tend to restore to man all his natural rights, convinced he has no natural right in opposition to his social duties."

His entire letter to the Danbury Baptists is a reassurance that government will not incur upon religion as was done in jolly old England by the establishment of the Church of England.  He speaks of the rights of citizens, and men, to be free from opposition to their religious callings.  Not of the rights of government to be free from religion.  He speaks quite clearly of the prohibition of the American Legislature from making any such laws that might affect the free practice of religion.  He makes no such reference, not even in implication, about the prohibition of religion in government. 
 
Really, given the body of evidence to the contrary, it's your burden to demonstrate where and how either the Constitution or its Framers meant to provide protection to the government "from" religion.  It should be really easy, if it exists.  It should be really obvious and direct, if it exists.  It should be unambiguous if it exists.  It just doesn't exist.
 
And finally, our rights are derived from God, not from government.  The Declaration of Independence creates a foundational purpose for our Constitution, and enumerates quite clearly from where our rights originate:
 
"We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights, that among these are Life, Liberty and the pursuit of Happiness."

If you remove religion from our government, you also remove the origin of our rights.  They would exist no longer as a gift to us for simply being citizens of our country, but at as a gift of our governement itself.  As rights from God they can not be infringed upon by man.  But as rights from the government, they can (and will) exist or vanish at the pleasure of politicians.  We can see how that works in other countries, and have a sense in the past half century what kind of impact it can have right here at home.


quote:


or explain away why the Constitution was at that time and still is secular in construction.


Because our government follows a Constitution, not a religion.  We are a country of laws, not doctrine. 

quote:


The lack of legal protections of the state from religion in the 1st Amendment hasn't been my debate here; it's the concept and the origin of the idea of "separation of church and state" and how the Founders were on to the need of this concept from the very beginning.


If it's now your intention to say that the Founding Fathers intended for there to be protection of religion (as is expressly stated in the First Amendment), then we are (and always were) in agreement.  I have said as much from the very outset.
 
I also said that the notion of separation of church and state as a protection for the government, from religion, was the legal construct of Justice Hugo Black.  Such a notion appears nowhere in 160 years of American law until he developed in a series of opinions he wrote in landmark cases during the late 1940's into the 1960's.  That's a fact.  He first latched onto the idea in Everson v. Board of Education in 1947, and is widely credited for lobbying his colleagues to flesh out the concept in succeeding years and cases.  That's a fact.  Justice Hugo Black was a member of the KKK.  That's a fact.  The KKK hates Catholics as well as blacks.  That's a fact.  His membership in the KKK caused a problem during his Senate confirmation hearings.  That's a fact.  His membership in the KKK caused a greater uproar after he was confirmed, when the Pittsburgh Post Gazette did a little investigative reporting into his KKK affiliation.  That's a fact. 
 
Those facts, and more, are readily available to anyone who wishes to read about Justice Black.  Here are a series of biographies with some reliable bibliographies of source material:
 
http://www.answers.com/topic/hugo-black
 
Sadly, they do not devote much attention to the particular issue we are discussing here other than to say that he was instrumental in the development of First Amendment rights.  For more information about that, you'll have to read a bit deeper.
 
I have no doubt that this has not been a sufficient reply.  No such reply short of Jefferson returning from the grave and speaking directly to you would suffice.  And even then you are likely to tell him that he's wrong.  But for any objective reader who may be informing themselves about American history, it's an open and shut case.
 
John

< Message edited by Rover -- 11/5/2008 6:32:57 AM >


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RE: Dominance in other Countries? - 11/5/2008 6:15:10 AM   
Rover


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You know, here's how we find ourselves in this situation.
 
First, at least five of nine men and women in black robes with lifetime appointments think that the Constitution should say or mean something that it doesn't.  They understand that amending the Constitution is a long and arduous process (just as the Founding Fathers intended).  So they choose to view the Constitution as a living, breathing document that changes with the times rather than meaning what it says and was intended.  And they simply discover new meanings, and new rights, as they see fit.
 
Problem with that is twofold.  First, it makes a mockery of the Constitution itself, the process by which it is amended, and the protections inherent to that amendment process.  To which Article V of the Constitution states:

"The Congress, whenever two thirds of both houses shall deem it necessary, shall propose amendments to this Constitution, or, on the application of the legislatures of two thirds of the several states, shall call a convention for proposing amendments, which, in either case, shall be valid to all intents and purposes, as part of this Constitution, when ratified by the legislatures of three fourths of the several states, or by conventions in three fourths thereof, as the one or the other mode of ratification may be proposed by the Congress; provided that no amendment which may be made prior to the year one thousand eight hundred and eight shall in any manner affect the first and fourth clauses in the ninth section of the first article; and that no state, without its consent, shall be deprived of its equal suffrage in the Senate."
 
It's clear and unambiguous.  Nowhere does it allow for the Judiciary to create new law, or new rights, by judicial fiat. 
 
But once that protection is lost, and the Judiciary becomes a defacto Legislature and Constitutional Convention all in one, it is now the subject of politicking.  Just as it has become today.  Instead of merely deciding law based upon the Constitution, and being a non political body, it has become another political body that creates law itself, in violation of the Constitution. 
 
And folks who don't know better think that's the way it has always worked.  And they think (as you do) that the rights a Court might discover must be somewhere in the Constitution.  And like you, they're frustrated when they go to find them and discover they don't exist. 
 
Throughout the course of this debate, I have been merely stating what "is".  Not what "should" be.  If folks think that government needs protection from religion, there's a process by which that can happen.  It's called the amendment process, and it's shown above.  But if you rely upon the whims of whomever may be on the court at any particular time, rather than the robust, unchanging Constitution, then your "rights" will come and go as the faces on the Court come and go, which is to say that they have no protection at all.  And your Court itself will become a political entity, just as it has today.
 
Be careful what you wish for.
 
John

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RE: Dominance in other Countries? - 11/5/2008 8:04:21 AM   
MsDonnaMia


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quote:

ORIGINAL: Rover

I have no idea if you understand nothing or not. But it's obvious you don't understand business tax policy.




What's obvious is you keep trying to "win," despite black and white facts contrary to your argument.

But keep Masterbating!

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RE: Dominance in other Countries? - 11/5/2008 11:28:17 AM   
MarcEsadrian


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I must revisit this thread.

Honestly, I think there are compelling arguments on both sides, from a technical point of view.

As for me, it's ultimately sound reasoning that if the state isn't separated from religion, there is no protection accorded to religion. This is common sense if one understands the bloody history of religion and state throughout the world. One need only look at several Middle Eastern countries today to see a working example of this lack of divide.

I further agree that written statements of "a perfect separation" or "the less they are mixed together" have pretty literal meanings, no matter who they were addressed to. It's absolutely true that the nuts and bolts verbiage of the First Amendment needed more clarification. What we should consider are the times in which these matters were being argued. Adams, Jefferson and Madison were vying for the support of their peers and trying to get votes like any other statesman. Supporters of Adams accused Jefferson of being a "howling atheist" for his ideas, nonetheless, illustrating the tension and judgment and zealotry of the times. That someone even had the "gall" to mention words like separation / church / state in the same sentence at that time in any context was no small thing; it was not too long ago before that time that Quakers were hung in Boston Common for their beliefs. One thing for sure is, it got the conversation started in America. You cannot argue that.

Regarding Hugo Black, I don't care if he was a polka-dotted baby eater from another planet; I think his sentiments in regard to the First Amendment were correct, no matter what modus operandi he used to address the lack of clarity, short of a military coup de tat. One thing for sure is he still needed a pretty convincing argument among his peers to set the new precedent, and there has always been the option for Congress or other justices to pick up the discussion. Does that make anyone who agrees with Hugo a triple K sympathizer? No. Does that mean those of like mind on the matter have it "out for the church" or our country? Not at all. Does it mean we believe a polytheistic nation is best served with a perfect separation of religion and state, where one does not infringe upon the other or where no religious test for state office shall be made? Most definitely.

- - - - - -

To the original poster, this argument is a perfect example of why assuming things are "liberated" here in America is a precarious thing to do. As you can see, we are still arguing about this more than two hundred years later, and with or without the Constitution, we still endured plenty of religious influence in the (now thankfully!) previous administration, as well as threats against our civil liberties. What is ultimately important is for us to keep the dialog going for the complete freedom of all American people. I think ongoing dialog is what our Founding Fathers would have wanted, not using them as scapegoats or champions to support or deny either argument. We live in the now. Let's argue about the now; it's more important anyway.

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RE: Dominance in other Countries? - 11/5/2008 4:31:52 PM   
Rover


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quote:

ORIGINAL: MarcEsadrian

As you can see, we are still arguing about this more than two hundred years later, and with or without the Constitution, we still endured plenty of religious influence in the (now thankfully!) previous administration, as well as threats against our civil liberties. 


If you felt that your civil liberties were threatened then you should appreciate how important it is to maintain a literal reading of the Constitution.  If it is viewed as a living, breathing and accomodating document, then sooner or later someone you don't like is going to manipulate its use in ways you don't like.  Once you let that genie out of the bottle, it is out of the bottle for every Justice or President to use as they see fit.... whether you like it or not.
 
Better that the genie remain in the bottle for all of our sakes.
 
John

< Message edited by Rover -- 11/5/2008 4:32:42 PM >


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RE: Dominance in other Countries? - 11/5/2008 4:40:13 PM   
Rover


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quote:

ORIGINAL: MsDonnaMia

What's obvious is you keep trying to "win," despite black and white facts contrary to your argument.

But keep Masterbating!


The entirety of your premise has been eviscerated, and you're declaring victory.  In that case, I wish you many more.
 
John

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RE: Dominance in other Countries? - 11/5/2008 4:50:24 PM   
Huntertn


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usually in america..if it says under the radar...its more like don't tell and we will not ask..But if your next door family sniches on you ..Here come the local cops and all the doo gooders....got to save the world you know..

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RE: Dominance in other Countries? - 11/5/2008 5:18:50 PM   
MarcEsadrian


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quote:

ORIGINAL: Rover

If you felt that your civil liberties were threatened then you should appreciate how important it is to maintain a literal reading of the Constitution. If it is viewed as a living, breathing and accomodating document, then sooner or later someone you don't like is going to manipulate its use in ways you don't like. Once you let that genie out of the bottle, it is out of the bottle for every Justice or President to use as they see fit.... whether you like it or not.

Better that the genie remain in the bottle for all of our sakes.

John


I for the most part agree with you, John. But times do change, and sometimes we need clarity on matters that are vital to our freedoms, or others would just as nefariously exploit ambiguity in our government's framework for their own agendas.

Marc

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RE: Dominance in other Countries? - 11/5/2008 7:18:25 PM   
ahumananimal


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quote:

ORIGINAL: MarcEsadrian

I must revisit this thread.

Honestly, I think there are compelling arguments on both sides, from a technical point of view.

As for me, it's ultimately sound reasoning that if the state isn't separated from religion, there is no protection accorded to religion. This is common sense if one understands the bloody history of religion and state throughout the world. One need only look at several Middle Eastern countries today to see a working example of this lack of divide.

I further agree that written statements of "a perfect separation" or "the less they are mixed together" have pretty literal meanings, no matter who they were addressed to. It's absolutely true that the nuts and bolts verbiage of the First Amendment needed more clarification. What we should consider are the times in which these matters were being argued. Adams, Jefferson and Madison were vying for the support of their peers and trying to get votes like any other statesman. Supporters of Adams accused Jefferson of being a "howling atheist" for his ideas, nonetheless, illustrating the tension and judgment and zealotry of the times. That someone even had the "gall" to mention words like separation / church / state in the same sentence at that time in any context was no small thing; it was not too long ago before that time that Quakers were hung in Boston Common for their beliefs. One thing for sure is, it got the conversation started in America. You cannot argue that.

Regarding Hugo Black, I don't care if he was a polka-dotted baby eater from another planet; I think his sentiments in regard to the First Amendment were correct, no matter what modus operandi he used to address the lack of clarity, short of a military coup de tat. One thing for sure is he still needed a pretty convincing argument among his peers to set the new precedent, and there has always been the option for Congress or other justices to pick up the discussion. Does that make anyone who agrees with Hugo a triple K sympathizer? No. Does that mean those of like mind on the matter have it "out for the church" or our country? Not at all. Does it mean we believe a polytheistic nation is best served with a perfect separation of religion and state, where one does not infringe upon the other or where no religious test for state office shall be made? Most definitely.


Bravo. Very well stated...and with that I'm moving on!

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RE: Dominance in other Countries? - 11/6/2008 3:34:43 AM   
Aibo


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This could have been one thread it would have been interesting to reply to, but even here the guys from the US of A have derailed it into something else.

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RE: Dominance in other Countries? - 11/6/2008 3:41:39 AM   
colouredin


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Sad isnt it, i got all confused a few pages ago and gave up

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