TAFKAA
Posts: 382
Joined: 1/5/2013
Status: offline
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Oh, it's gender specific because when discussing such things, it's almost exclusively referencing male dominants.
I find it interesting, because it reveals the fundamental underlying assumptions which exist in all of you, despite your contentions otherwise. That assumption is this: Men have agency, women don't.
Men do, women are done to. In any interaction it's the man who's guilty and the woman who's the victim. Any negative abuse of power is always a gender-specific discussion. Aside from the findomme and prodomme discussions, try and find a discussion on this board in which a discussion about poor dominant behaviour references "dommes".
I'm not fussed - it merely confirms my reading of the Dom/domme dichotomy as correct. Naturally, that's subject to confirmation bias, but the counter-evidence to my position on this has yet to rear its ugly head.
Oh, and before you try denying this, consider the fact that of all the posts before my initial observation, only ONE post out of twenty referenced the possibility of a woman being an abusive dominant asshole. Honestly, such gender bias is shocking and shameful.
You're welcome.
< Message edited by TAFKAA -- 1/10/2013 11:24:03 AM >
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RE: Are 'Dom' and 'Asshole' mutually exclusive? - 
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