Thegunnysez
Posts: 741
Joined: 8/17/2015 Status: offline
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quote:
ORIGINAL: DesideriScuri quote:
ORIGINAL: Thegunnysez quote:
Sorry. You asked how a bill's intent and how it's written could oppose each other. And, I gave you a very clear, and recent, example. Since SCOTUS did not write the bill it would be impossible for them to know the intent. The best they can hope for is to infer. The records of the debates re: the amendment would be the intent. Since the SCOTUS ruled that the intent of the law was the proper way to enforce the law, it sure seems they had to do some digging to figure the intent, doesn't it? And, since the intent of the law did not align with the wording of the law, my example is spot on. Since SCOTUS did not write the bill it would be impossible for them to know the intent. The best they can hope for is to infer. The records of the debates re: the amendment would be the intent. Your example is clearly an attempt to avoid the issue. If you really want to know the intent of the 14th then lets read all the discussion. You wish to limit the discussion to the two inputs you offered and no others. You wish to conflate that with the SCOTUS decision in another case you disagree with. Simply saying something is equivalent is not proof that it is. Lets give a look at the quote you gave us re: one of the sponsors of the amendment. to wit: 'This will not, of course, include persons born in the United States who are foreigners, aliens, who belong to the families of ambassadors or foreign ministers accredited to the Government of the United States, but will include every other class of persons.' You may verify this with a grammarian but the words (foreigners-aliens) are adjectives modifying "families of ambassadors etc. For those words to mean what you want them to mean those words would be separated with (and/or). While I agree that this quote and the other support my position I still feel that we need to address all of the 240+ opinions to get a full understanding of their intent.
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