tazzygirl
Posts: 37833
Joined: 10/12/2007 Status: offline
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Actually, by definition, it is. Argument from ignorance The two most common forms of the argument from ignorance, both fallacious, can be reduced to the following form: Something is currently unexplained or insufficiently understood or explained, so it is not (or must not be) true. Because there appears to be a lack of evidence for one hypothesis, another chosen hypothesis is therefore considered proven. Irving Copi writes that: The argumentum ad ignorantiam [fallacy] is committed whenever it is argued that a proposition is true simply on the basis that it has not been proven false, or that it is false because it has not been proven true.[...] A qualification should be made at this point. In some circumstances it can be safely assumed that if a certain event had occurred, evidence of it could be discovered by qualified investigators. In such circumstances it is perfectly reasonable to take the absence of proof of its occurrence despite searching, as positive evidence towards its non-occurrence. (Copi 1953)
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Telling me to take Midol wont help your butthurt. RIP, my demon-child 5-16-11 Duchess of Dissent 1 Dont judge me because I sin differently than you. If you want it sugar coated, dont ask me what i think! It would violate TOS.
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