DomKen
Posts: 19457
Joined: 7/4/2004 From: Chicago, IL Status: offline
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quote:
ORIGINAL: thompsonx quote:
ORIGINAL: DomKen Where the hell do you think water in rivers comes from? As to the rest I told you the facts and you expressed disbelief. That doesn't change the facts. quote:
Read the article yourself it is very clear. You remain wrong. This from the cite I posted for you indicates that riparian rights differ from rainwater...please note the bolded part. What is it that I am wrong about? Riparian water rights, therefore, occur as a result of landownership. A landowner who owns land that physically touches a river, stream, pond, or lake has an equal right to the use of water from that source. This water right, however, is only a usufructuary right and not a property right in the water. The water may be used as it passes through the property of the land owner, but it cannot be unreasonably detained or diverted, and it must be returned to the stream from which it was obtained. The use of riparian water rights is generally regulated by "reasonable use." Reasonable use allows for the consumptive use of water, but what actually constitutes reasonable use has varied widely from state to state and continues to evolve. Only certain waters are subject to riparian rights. Riparian rights only attach to water in watercourses and not to diffuse surface waters. Diffuse waters are waters that are spread over the surface, where as a watercourse has a definite natural channel and a bed with banks. Diffuse waters are generally storm or flood drainage, and these do not constitute riparian rights. Did you fail to read the entire article? riparian rights only apply to certain waterways not to all waterways and not at all to watersheds. Prior appropriation is an entirely different way of assigning rights to water and it does include watersheds and it is how water rights are determined in most of the western US. SLC in the original article is dealing with a prior appropriation type water rights issue not riparian.
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