thompsonx
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Joined: 10/1/2006 Status: offline
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ORIGINAL: DomKen quote:
ORIGINAL: thompsonx quote:
ORIGINAL: DomKen Wyoming v Colorado made prior appropriation the standard between the western states. No it did not. It adjudicated the prior appropriation rights of wyoming and colorado to a riparian source, the laramie river. The States that have a hybrid system (that is both riparian rights and prior appropriation rights) include California, Kansas, Nebraska, North and South Dakota, Oklahoma, Oregon, Texas, and Washington. Which would leave idaho, montana, wyoming, colorado, utah, nevada, arizona and new mexico as those states which recognize only prior appropriation law. It is the basis for the various interstate water deals in the west. I do take notice that you are no longer claiming it has anything to do with riparian rights. As I have mentioned previously it adjudicated prior appropriation to a riparian source, the laramie river. I'm not attacking you because I've got nothing I'm requesting that you use standard quoting techniques so your posts are readable and my replies are not quite so annoying to try and get to make sense, it is not my fault that you can't tell the difference between a polite request and an attack. You managed to be able to understand my post for four pages, now that your arguements have been found wanting you resort to whining about how I post. Actually my annoyance got to the point where I made a polite request after 4 pages of your insults and difficult posting style. What insult have I posted to you? quote:
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Out west water rights is not tied to property but instead to historic usage. In this case SLC has rights to rainfall runoff in its boundaries up to some set amount but downstream entities have rights to the rest. Does not "downstream" indicate riparian water? No. It was simple shorthand for all the rights holders who have right to the water after the priority rights holder. Since water flows downstream that's where those users usually are. Note that you yourself admit Utah uses Prior appropriation so no discussion of riparian rights is on topic, Riparian means water that is in a lake, stream or river etc....somewhat different than riparian rights. In the case cited wyoming v colorado it is colorado which is upstream from wyoming on the laramie river and if you had read the cite on wyoming v colorado you would have known that colorado was seeking to divert water upstream from wyoming which had the prior appropriative right. The supreme court ruled in favor of wyoming's prior appropriation and limited the amount that colorado could remove upstream from wyoming. quote:
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So when the car wash diverted large quantities out of that flow they opened SLC up to all sorts of legal trouble. SLC is using up part of their yearly allocation for the car wash's cistern now. The appropriative right is governed as is noted in the blm cite: quote:
An appropriative right is generally based upon physical control and beneficial use of the water. These rights are entitlements to a specific amount of water, for a specified use, at a specific location with a definite date of priority. And if all the water is in use? Which is likely the case in SLC. Then diverting any water into a cistern is effectively stealing from some other entity with rights to the water. That's fairly obviously what is going on with teh car wash. You really need to go back and read the section on prior appropriation. SLC would have had a prior appropriation but as I have posted they cannot appropriate more than they use and that once appropriated they cannot increase that appropriation at the detriment of later appropriators. You are making the assumption that slc was the size it is today when it made it's first appropriation. quote:
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A new water well in the western states that use prior appropriation to allocate water rights would need to use an existing water right otherwise it would be subject to litigation by the rights holders. Not according to the citation from the blm (bureau of land management). The prior approiator is entitled only to its "specific amount of water" it is not open ended. All who come after the prior appropiator are entitled to the specific amount of water that they appropriate (use productively) that is in excess of what the prior appropriator has taken. The first appropriator cannot increase his prior appropriation at the expense of the later appropriator. You're assuming the water was not already in use, that is almost never true. SLC was not born full grown. quote:
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Did you fail to read the entire article? riparian rights only apply to certain waterways not to all waterways and not at all to watersheds. Prior appropriation is an entirely different way of assigning rights to water and it does include watersheds and it is how water rights are determined in most of the western US. SLC in the original article is dealing with a prior appropriation type water rights issue not riparian. No it is not. SLC is dealing with a prior appropriation of a riparian source and claiming that rainwater is part of that source which you stated. There are no riparian water rtights in Utah the state is exclusively prior appropriation. Your own source says so. Now was that so hard? You are the one who made the case that slc was using a riparian source, that is water that exists in a river,lake, stream etc. (not to be confused with riparian rights which is a form of water use adjudication). I am quite aware that utah is a prior appropriation state. Remember I am the one who listed which states were hybrid and which are p/a states.
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