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Real0ne -> RE: Are the British more law abiding than Americans? (1/5/2011 5:07:48 PM)
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quote:
ORIGINAL: Politesub53
Real One..... You spout nonsense about some long gone law from the middle ages, and fail to mention it was abolished long ago. I think you have serious problems understanding reality.
Knights Service is just one such instance, abolished at the time of the Restoration. Dont make me quote the law concerned and make you look stupid, as per usual.
not abolished replaced or ignored. Abolished does not mean no longer capable of being used either.
Cant "presume" that what you read is the "whole" story.
People think the articles of confederation were abolished too.... because they do not know that if the AOC was abolished there would be no foundational law to create any of the states and without that foundational law the states here could not exist.
That is why when we have common law tribunals (one in 500, million) we can use law back to 1215 as I posted below
quote:
ORIGINAL: Real0ne
quote:
ORIGINAL: ThatDamnedPanda
quote:
ORIGINAL: Real0ne
its very easy to prove america is a feudal society and to dumb to know the difference lol
You're half right, I'll give you that - you have no trouble at all proving the second point in your argument.
The first point... well, that must not be as easy as you think, because in all your years of posting, you've never come within a mile of it.
to easy!
Look up knights service.
they would conquer land and divide it up among 60,000 knights sworn to protect the king.
Go to the northwest ordinance:
quote:
Provided, the constitution and government so to be formed, shall be republican, and in conformity to the principles contained in these articles; and, so far as it can be consistent with the general interest of the confederacy, such admission shall be allowed at an earlier period, and when there may be a less number of free inhabitants in the State than sixty thousand. (knights were considered franchised freemen)
How do you get out of knights service? Well by paying the feud to the lord!
TAXES!
the title to your property is in fee simple
fee simple is "in fee"
in fee is in fealty to the lord
Your state is sovereign and you can only sue them with THEIR permission and then only what they are willing to ALLOW you to sue for.
quote:
Common law continued in force. SECTION 13. Such parts of the common law as are now in force in the territory of Wisconsin, not inconsistent with this constitution, shall be and continue part of the law of this state until altered or suspended by the legislature.
This section does not codify English common law circa 1776, but preserves law that by historical understanding is subject to continuing evolution under the judicial power. The supreme court court has authority not only to alter but also to abrogate the common law when appropriate. The court’s responsibility for altering or abolishing a common law rule does not end due to legislative failure to enact a statute
to the contrary. State v. Picotte, 2003 WI 42, 261 Wis. 2d 249, 661 N.W.2d 381,
01−3063.
Common law of 1776 goes all the way back to the 1215 Magna Charta and is secured not only in the wisconsin constitution but the federal constitution as well even though it is largely ignored.
So how do you plan on telling me that the definition fee simple has somehow changed?
I know! You can tell me that you own your property in alod and you do not have to pay taxes on it for "services rendered by the sovereign king". (state)
Can you do that?
Welcome to the desert of the real peasant!
LOL
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