Galacia -> RE: Financial Domination / What are your thoughts & Why ? (7/25/2013 9:14:50 PM)
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ORIGINAL: tazzygirl Now, explain the difference between prostitution and... sex shows (peep shows).... strip shows.... porn.... It's simple, and, the first amendment is involved as much as anything else. Why is Prostitution Illegal, but Pornography is Not? "Prostitution is defined as “‘any lewd act between persons for money or other consideration.” The state argued that since the performers engaged in sexual acts before the movie cameras “for the money they received,” they were engaged in prostitution, and thus Mr. Freeman was engaged in “procuring” them for prostitution." They go on to define it deeper as "The Court noted that for an act to constitute prostitution, “the genitals, buttocks, or female breast, of either the prostitute or the customer must come in contact with some part of the body of the other for the purpose of sexual arousal or gratification of the customer or of the prostitute.” Id (citing People v. Hill (1980) 103 Cal.App.3d 525, at 534-535). Since the payment of the acting fees was the only payment, there was no evidence that any payment was made for the purpose of sexual gratification. " So, I ask the seemingly innocent question of you in particular, for typical Financial Domination, what is the money paid for? And, does the person paying or receiving that money expect any contact with the genitals, buttocks or female breast for the purpose of sexual arousal or gratification of either party?
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