popeye1250
Posts: 18104
Joined: 1/27/2006 From: New Hampshire Status: offline
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quote:
ORIGINAL: celticlord2112 quote:
ORIGINAL: mistoferin What do you think was the intended meaning of the phrase? Do you think that all men really are equal? And in what respect? The phrase that follows it in the Declaration of Independence explains it quite succinctly: "That they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable rights." Men are not born noble or commoner, was the custom of European society of the time, nor can a man assume the leadership of a nation merely by virtue of his birth. For many, in the culture of the time and even afterwards, there was a difference of opinion about who was contained in the word "Men" (even Abraham Lincoln believed black people were inferior--his solution to the question of slavery was to free the slaves and ship every last one of them back to Africa from whence they came), but IF you were a "Man," you were born with the same rights as any other "Man." Viewed in a modern light, the phrase means that, regardless of whether one is born rich or poor, whether one is white or black or Asian, whether one is Christian or Muslim or Hindu or Jew, each of us is born with the same basic desires and ambitions: to be happy, to lead a fulfilling life, to have friends and not enemies, to receive love and not hatred. The phrase means that we are all imperfect yet perfectable. People do not, overall, treat their fellows equally. However, that is testamant to man's imperfection, not proof men are created unequal. CelticLord, I think you pretty much hit the nail on the head.
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"But Your Honor, this is not a Jury of my Peers, these people are all decent, honest, law-abiding citizens!"
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