shallowdeep
Posts: 343
Joined: 9/1/2006 From: California Status: offline
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I hesitate to dredge up a topic that, after causing some degree of acrimony, was happily passing into oblivion, but I would like to address some of Chaingang's questions, with the hope this can be done without furthering any rancor... if I follow the thread correctly, this started with the assertion that all Mosaic faiths had a tendency to incite intolerance and violence and then got into some interesting "discussions" of the relation of Christianity to Mosaic Law. As the later may be the easier, and certainly the less emotionally charged, of the two I would like to start with it and hold off on the former. My understanding, Chaingang, is that from your reading of scripture, you believe Christ taught that the Old Testament Mosaic laws apply to Christians and you have trouble seeing how Christians can be under some other law that makes them any better/different than OT Judaism, which you deem abhorrent. With such a reading any attempt to disavow Mosaic law seems like a repudiation of Scripture and, therefore, hypocrisy. Fair enough. Now, I happen to be a Christian so I've already made a (by definition) irrational leap of faith and perhaps it comes as little surprise that pointing out such a logical fallacy should not perturb me. However, in most matters I tend toward the rational and I would be troubled by such a problem... if I believed it existed. My reading of scripture is at odds with yours and, as you challenged for an acceptable alternative reading, I'll try to provide mine. For the sake of argument, take the leap of faith that God exists (or use the ontological "proof" or something... =) ) and follow that with the usual Christian assumptions as given. Okay, I think we agree that with the assumption of God come some fundament immutable laws of morality. You see Christ as extending the set laws of God, made manifest by Moses. I see Christ as making clear the spirit of the Mosaic laws. That is the Mosaic laws were not God's commandments per se, but rather the best way to codify the true "natural" laws at the time they were made. Nice... but how 'bout some red letters to back that up? (All subsequent quotes NIV) See Mark 10:2-9 regarding divorce. Jesus, "It was because your hearts were that Moses wrote you this law... what God has joined let man not separate." Or Mark 7:14-15 regarding unclean things in Mosaic law. Jesus again, "Listen to me, everyone, and understand this. Nothing outside a man can make him 'unclean' by going into him..." Hardly sounds like these laws are the true natural laws of God... more like a way for the people to people to approach the underlying spirit of the law through easily comprehensible letters. Christ in fact rails against the importance placed on the Mosaic law's letter. And in Matthew 7:12 he says, "So in everything, do to others what you would have them do to you, for this sums up the Law and the Prophets." (also see Matt 22:37-39, Mark 12:29-31) Which pretty much (excuse me) "sums up": the Law can be observed by merely following the Golden Rule and loving God. Note that Jesus also frequently "violated" the law, as when harvesting wheat on the Sabbath (Matthew 12). In the Judeo-Christain view, God is incapable of sin and breaking a law is sinful... so perhaps the Mosaic laws aren't sacrosanct? So, what about Jesus' statement, "Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law of the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them" (Matthew 5:17)? Do I just disregard this? Not at all. The Mosaic Law and the Prophets weren't wrong or invalid, but they weren't fully serving their purpose of revealing their true spirit either, hence the need for "fulfillment" and the reason why Jesus does not end with "...but to uphold the laws as they are." In light of his "violations" of the standing laws during his Ministry, he certainly wasn't fulfilling the letter of the law, so this is the logical interpretation of "fulfill" I see. I'll grant that semantics can get tricky in translation, but this seems pretty evident. If you really want, I might be able to look into the original Hebrew. In John 14:15 you quote "If you love me, you will obey what I command." You assume Jesus refers to the Mosaic Law... but does he? You ask, "What other commandments would a practicing Jew be talking about here? " A good question, but I thought we'd agreed to allow Christ's divinity? So the proper question here is "What other commands would God be talking about here?" And, looking back a few verses in John we find context that might provide the answer, "A new command I give you: Love one another. As I have loved you, so you must love one another. By this all men will know that you are my disciples..." (John 13:34-35) Ah, if only all professed Christians could always live up to that... but I digress. So, Christians (in the true sense of followers of Christ) are removed from the burden of observing the rigid formalities of law. Huzzah! But the replacement commands, love God and love your neighbor, are actually much more stringent. Suddenly, it's no longer good enough to to not commit immoral sexual acts rather just thinking about them damns you (sh@t! - I'm screwed!). This was the spirit of the Mosaic law in the first place. This is where grace enters the equation. See the account of the rich young man asking Christ what he could do to be saved. (Matthew 19:16-26) Despite having observed all the laws, the man falls short of salvation. "When the disciples heard this, they were greatly astonished and asked, "Who then can be saved?" Jesus looked at them and said, "With man this is IMPOSSIBLE, but with God all things are possible." (emphasis mine) So, in Christ's own words, everyone is saved by grace. For this in action, see Luke 23:39-43, where Christ admits a fellow "cruxifixee" and admitted criminal to heaven, "I tell you the truth, today you will be with me in paradise." Now, this man hadn't exactly been following the Mosaic laws, and certainly not the laws of Christ, but received salvation. Even allowing for the unpleasantly extended duration of death by crucifixion, he wasn't exactly in a position to atone for his Mosaic law violations. (I think it's safe to assume he didn't manage a burnt offering at the temple.) So, we see that not only is grace required, but it is also sufficient for salvation. Hopefully this satisfies you that a rational person can accept a post-Christ split with rigid Mosaic law as being scriptural and directly attributed to Jesus. However, while I tried to stay within the bounds of the "red letters" I, like others, must admit to being a bit perplexed by this seeming arbitrary distinction. The gospels are first person accounts of events written somewhat after the fact and, leaving aside the matter divine inspiration, if you were trying to get the facts straight about someone's life would you turn to a few first-person accounts written years after the fact, or to those (written about the same time) that explained things (perhaps more coherently) in a manner with which nearly everyone concerned with said person's life and memory could agree was accurate? I think both would be valid tools... Alright, thanks for sticking with me. You're free to head back to a more rational reality now. =) Hopefully the issue of law and grace has been cleared up some, but I'm not sure that fully addresses your initial concern, which was more about the apparent mutability of this God. In the OT he's down with pillage and "genocide," but given a few hundred years he mellows out and thinks universal love is great. Seems a bit... odd. You may not find my answer satisfactory. God we allow as good, just, and loving... also, by self admission, jealous and intolerant of evil. If you allow such an entity, you allow punishments... including the ravages of war. I don't believe the New Testament changed that. What it did change was the relationship of man to God and the extension of that special relationship to all people, not just the descendants of Abraham. If there is a supreme being with supreme natural laws then our notions of morals aren't worth very much and we can accept that or not, but it won't change matters. That said, if loving your neighbor is the "good" of human interaction then I don't really want to be on the other side. And this leads back to where this all started, which is do religions (perhaps especially ones with Judeo-Christian foundations) lead to increased intolerance, violence, and hatred? And perhaps beyond that, are they a good or bad thing? My own, doubtless irrational, answer would have to factor in eternity and the benefits of salvation. From a purely humanistic point, it would be a harder call and worthy of an entirely separate thread. I would like like to thank you for challenging me to gain a better understanding of my faith. One can never cease seeking a better understanding. Hopefully, it wasn't without some benefit to you as well. In Christ's love and peace, - shallowdeep Man: God, how long is 1000 years to you? God: A mere second. Man: Hmm. How much is a million dollars to you, then? God: A mere penny. Man: God, can I have a penny? God: Sure, just a second.
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